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The exam is 200 MCQs (up to 10% unscored pilot items), two 120-minute blocks with a 30-minute break, four-option single best answer. Question domains follow the shared Gulf nursing core: Nursing Fundamentals, Adult (medical-surgical, critical care, community, mental health) Nursing, Maternal-Child Nursing, and Nursing Management — the structure published in the SCFHS SNLE blueprint. Always confirm current format details in your official applicant materials.
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The bank currently contains 1211 verified questions with source-cited rationales, distributed to the blueprint weighting (Fundamentals 20%, Adult 40%, Maternal-Child 30%, Management 10%). It is growing steadily — every question ships only after an independent verification pass against its cited source.
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It is organised into 4 modules that follow the exam's own content areas: Nursing Fundamentals, Adult Nursing, Maternal-Child Nursing and Nursing Management and Leadership. Each module is drilled and scored separately, so you can see exactly which areas are exam-ready and which still need work.
Last updated 6 July 2026. The bank is revised whenever the source material it cites changes, and every question carries the source its explanation is drawn from.
A selection of free questions with answers and source-cited rationales. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.
According to the source, what remains the gold standard for definitive diagnosis of endometriosis?
Why: The source states that while pelvic ultrasound and MRI may visualize pelvic anatomy, laparoscopic surgery with direct visualization and biopsy of endometrial implants remains the gold standard for definitive diagnosis of endometriosis.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 18.10 Endometriosis
A nurse is obtaining a tympanic temperature on an adult. According to the source, to visualize the ear canal the nurse should gently pull the helix (outer ear):
Why: The source states that for an adult or older child the nurse should gently pull the helix up and back to visualize the ear canal, whereas for an infant or child under age 3 the helix is pulled down. Pulling down for all ages or straight out contradicts the source.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 1.3 Vital Signs
A patient on the floor begins a generalized seizure with clenched jaws. According to the source, what should the nurse do?
Why: The source directs the nurse to protect the patient's head with a pad and prevent it from hitting the floor. It explicitly states not to insert anything into the mouth or pry clenched jaws, and not to restrain the patient or attempt to stop movements.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 9.7 Seizures and Epilepsy
A postoperative patient had an indwelling catheter removed. According to the source, within how many hours should the patient be anticipated to void?
Why: The source states that if an indwelling catheter was placed for surgery and removed, the patient should be anticipated to void within eight hours of removal; otherwise additional interventions such as bladder scanning are required.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.5 Postoperative Nursing Care
For a patient with increased ICP following a hemorrhagic stroke, the source directs the nurse to position the head of the bed at what level?
Why: The source directs elevating the head of the bed to greater than 30 degrees (or as determined by the provider) and keeping the neck midline to facilitate venous drainage from the head. It also warns against clustering nursing activities, which can drastically raise ICP.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 9.9 Cerebrovascular Accident
Immediately after delivery, a newborn is breathing and crying with good tone, even though the amniotic fluid contained meconium. According to the source, what is the appropriate action?
Why: The source states newborns who are breathing and/or crying can be placed skin-to-skin with their parent and do not require routine tactile stimulation or suctioning, even if the amniotic fluid was notable for meconium, because suctioning can cause bradycardia.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.9 Neonatal Resuscitation
The source states that kernicterus, or bilirubin-related brain damage, is caused by bilirubin levels greater than which value?
Why: The source states kernicterus is brain damage caused by bilirubin levels greater than 25 mg/dL, and that levels greater than 30 mg/dL can cause irreversible brain damage.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 12.3 Common Complications During the Neonatal Period
A patient with a suspected increase in intracranial pressure is being considered for morphine. What caution does the source describe for this situation?
Why: The source cautions that with head injury or increased intracranial pressure, morphine's respiratory depressant effects may be exaggerated and it can affect pupillary response and consciousness, obscuring neurologic signs of rising intracranial pressure. It does not reliably lower intracranial pressure.
Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 10.7 Opioid Analgesics and Antagonists
A nurse prepares a patient with impaired mobility for a meal. Which positioning intervention does the source recommend to promote safe eating?
Why: The source directs the nurse to assist the patient to a sitting position before eating or feeding, and to sit in a chair or high Fowler's position in bed. A supine or flat position during eating increases aspiration risk and is not recommended.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 14.3 Applying the Nursing Process
The source states hepatitis A is commonly transmitted by which route?
Why: The source states hepatitis A is commonly transmitted via the fecal-to-oral route and is common in places with poor sanitation. Hepatitis B and C are transmitted via contact with infected body fluids.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 11.15 Hepatitis
According to the source, which risk factor is associated with neural tube defects during early pregnancy?
Why: The source lists risk factors for neural tube defects including genetic factors, low folate (vitamin B9) levels during early pregnancy, poorly controlled diabetes, certain medications, and overheating or fever.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.6 Congenital and Genetic Disorders
Immediately after a patient's tonic-clonic seizure ends, which nursing action does the source identify to prevent aspiration?
Why: The source states that after a seizure, the nurse should keep the patient on their side to prevent aspiration and ensure the airway is open and patent. There is often a period of confusion after a tonic-clonic seizure, so a safe environment is maintained.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 9.7 Seizures and Epilepsy
Birth is imminent and an opioid is prescribed for labor pain. According to the source, why might the nurse use clinical judgment to withhold it?
Why: The source states that if birth is imminent and an opioid can cause neonatal respiratory depression, the nurse may use clinical judgment and withhold the opioid. Opioids cross the placenta and, if the fetus is born while the drug circulates, depressed respirations may result.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 10.6 Pain Management During Labor and Delivery
A nurse reviews the record of a patient newly diagnosed with hypertension. Which finding is most consistent with a secondary cause of hypertension as described in the source?
Why: The source states secondary hypertension results from an underlying condition or medication, such as kidney disease. Gradual rise over time, family history, and high-sodium diet are features or risk factors of primary hypertension.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 5.5 Hypertension
According to the source's CLABSI prevention guidance, semipermeable transparent CVAD dressings should be changed at which interval (if not sooner soiled)?
Why: The source states dressings are changed every two days for gauze dressings and every seven days for semipermeable dressings, or as needed if they become damp, loose, or visibly soiled.
Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 4.2 Basic Concepts
A patient identified at risk for suicide is being discharged from an inpatient unit. Based on the source, why is providing follow-up information and a safety plan especially important at this time?
Why: The source states that a patient's risk for suicide is high after discharge from psychiatric inpatient or emergency department settings, and that developing a safety plan and providing crisis call center numbers can decrease suicidal behavior after the patient leaves the organization.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 1.6 Establishing Safety
A clinic offers patients access to their records and results through patient portals. According to the source, this best supports which benefit of informatics?
Why: The source states informatics promotes patient-centered care through patient portals, in addition to improving patient safety, reducing delays in care, reducing waste, and supporting quality improvement.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Quality and Evidence-Based Practice
The source describes the 'CAUTION' mnemonic for early warning signs of cancer. What does the 'C' represent?
Why: The source states the CAUTION mnemonic begins with C for Changes in bowel or bladder habits, followed by A sore that does not heal, Unusual bleeding, Thickening or lump, Indigestion, Obvious change in a wart or mole, and Nagging cough or hoarseness.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 4.3 Cancer
The source lists the assessment findings of a postoperative deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as which of the following?
Why: The source states DVT presents with unilateral redness, warmth, edema, and possible calf pain. The nurse promptly notifies the provider for diagnostic testing and anticoagulant therapy to prevent embolism.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.5 Postoperative Nursing Care
According to the source, which antiviral medication is used to reduce the severity and duration of influenza?
Why: The source states oseltamivir is used for influenza to reduce severity and duration, while remdesivir is used for COVID-19.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 15.11 Respiratory Viral Infections
A nurse applies anti-embolism stockings and sequential compression devices to a preoperative patient. These devices help prevent which complication?
Why: The source states compression stockings and sequential compression devices prevent venous stasis and possible deep vein thrombosis (DVT) by providing compression to the legs.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.3 Preoperative Nursing Care
A nurse uses a blood pressure cuff that is too small for the patient's arm. According to the source, this will most likely produce:
Why: The source states an undersized cuff will cause an artificially high blood pressure reading, while an oversized cuff produces an artificially low reading. Inflating higher does not correct an undersized cuff, so the other options are incorrect.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 3.2 Blood Pressure Basics
According to the source, the study of the social, cultural, psychological, cognitive, and biological aspects of aging is called:
Why: The source defines gerontology as the study of the social, cultural, psychological, cognitive, and biological aspects of aging. Ageism, by contrast, is the stereotyping and discrimination against individuals on the basis of their age.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 19.2 Older Adult Basic Concepts
According to the source, when administering medications a nurse validates the medication is doing more 'good' than 'harm.' This reflects which ethical concepts from Provision 6 of the ANA Code?
Why: The source states Provision 6 focuses on virtues and holds nurses accountable to use clinical judgment to avoid causing harm (maleficence) and to do good (beneficence); when administering medications, nurses validate the medication is doing more good than harm.
Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology, 2.2 Ethical & Professional Foundations
According to the source, the American Heart Association recommends inflating the blood pressure cuff to what level before beginning to deflate it?
Why: The source states the AHA recommends the cuff be inflated at least 30 mmHg above the point at which the radial pulse is no longer palpable. A fixed 200 mmHg, the expected systolic, or a diastolic-based figure are not the recommendation.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 3.2 Blood Pressure Basics
According to the source, why must a newborn CBC collected within 72 hours of birth be interpreted with caution for sepsis?
Why: The source states newborn CBCs collected within 72 hours of birth reflect more about the mother's immune status rather than serving as a biomarker for neonatal sepsis. Diagnosis is based on positive culture results.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.5 Neonatal Sepsis
The source states that on an ECG, ischemia to cardiac muscle tissue is indicated by which finding?
Why: The source states ischemia is indicated by ST segment depression, injury by ST segment elevation, and infarcted (dead) tissue produces a Q wave change. The other options are not the ischemia marker described.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 5.7 Coronary Artery Disease
A patient has dysphagia (difficulty swallowing). According to the source, why is this a nutritional safety concern, and what is typically prescribed?
Why: The source states dysphagia can make it dangerous to swallow food because it can result in pneumonia from aspiration of food into the lungs. Special soft diets or enteral or parenteral nutrition are typically prescribed, and nurses collaborate with speech therapists when assessing and managing dysphagia.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 14.2 Nutrition Basic Concepts
Under the Patient's Bill of Rights, which document allows a patient to designate a surrogate decision-maker for health care?
Why: The Patient's Bill of Rights states the patient has the right to have an advance directive - such as a living will, health care proxy, or durable power of attorney for health care - concerning treatment or designating a surrogate decision-maker, and the hospital will honor its intent to the extent permitted by law.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 3.3 Patient's Bill of Rights
According to the source, anemia may develop in acute renal failure as a result of which mechanism?
Why: The source states a complete blood count may reflect anemia as the result of decreased erythropoietin production during acute renal failure. The kidneys normally produce erythropoietin to stimulate red blood cell production.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 8.5 Acute Renal Failure
A nursing student is reviewing pharmacokinetics. Which sequence correctly lists the four stages a medication passes through in the body?
Why: The source defines pharmacokinetics as the four stages of absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion, abbreviated ADME. Absorption occurs first as the drug enters circulation, then distribution, then metabolism (breakdown), then excretion. The other orderings rearrange these stages incorrectly.
Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 1.2 Pharmacokinetics
A postmenopausal patient reports new vaginal bleeding. Based on the source, this is a common symptom of which cancer, and which test is used in its diagnostic workup?
Why: The source states that a common symptom of endometrial cancer, the most common type of uterine cancer, is postmenopausal vaginal bleeding. Diagnostic testing for endometrial cancer includes a transvaginal ultrasound and endometrial sampling.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 8.10 Female Reproductive System Disorders
According to the source, what is the most common cause of pathological jaundice in the newborn?
Why: The source states the most common cause of pathological jaundice is blood group incompatibility (ABO or Rh factor), also called hemolytic disease of the newborn. Pathological jaundice rises earlier and faster than physiological jaundice.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 12.3 Common Complications During the Neonatal Period
According to the source, alpha-2 adrenergic agonists such as clonidine relieve which symptoms of opioid withdrawal most effectively?
Why: The source states alpha-2 adrenergic agonists including clonidine and lofexidine effectively relieve autonomic symptoms of sweating, diarrhea, intestinal cramps, nausea, anxiety, and irritability, but are least effective for myalgias, restlessness, insomnia, and craving.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 14.3 Withdrawal Management/Detoxification
The nurse prepares to give a uterotonic for PPH. According to the source, methylergonovine is contraindicated in a patient with which condition?
Why: The source states methylergonovine acts directly on uterine muscle, is the only uterotonic causing sustained contractions, must NOT be given IV, and is contraindicated in patients with hypertension or preeclampsia due to the risk of hypertensive crisis. Misoprostol is the prostaglandin safe in asthma and hypertension.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.3 Hemorrhage (Perinatal)
According to the source, which gastrointestinal complication of prematurity involves injury to the cells lining the bowel and has a lower risk in infants fed only breast milk?
Why: The source describes necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC) as injury to the cells lining the bowel, and states premature babies who receive only breast milk have a much lower risk of getting NEC. NEC is diagnosed by intramural gas on abdominal X-ray.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.2 Preterm Birth
According to the source, who or what is considered the PRIMARY source of subjective data during a health history?
Why: The source states the patient is the primary source of subjective data. Secondary sources include the patient's chart, family members, or other health care team members. If data is gathered from someone other than the patient, the nurse should document where the information was obtained.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 2.2 Health History Basic Concepts
According to the source, cleft lip repair can begin after the infant reaches which of the following milestones?
Why: The source states cleft lip repair can begin after the infant is over ten pounds and ten weeks old. Cleft palate repair, by contrast, will not begin until the child is 9-15 months old.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.5 Cleft Lip and Cleft Palate
A nurse prepares to flush a patient's central venous catheter. Which syringe size is preferred to avoid excessive pressure?
Why: The source states using a 10-mL syringe is preferred for CVADs to avoid increased pressure that can cause a potential rupture, and the nurse should never flush against resistance.
Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 4.2 Basic Concepts
According to the source, the normal resting respiratory rate for an adult is:
Why: The source states the normal resting respiratory rate for adults is 10-20 breaths per minute. The 30-60 range is for newborns to one month, 12-22 for ages 11-18, and 26-60 for infants one month to one year.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 1.3 Vital Signs
A patient develops pneumonia three days after admission to the hospital for another condition. According to the source's classifications, this is best described as which type of pneumonia?
Why: The source defines hospital-acquired pneumonia as pneumonia that began during or immediately following a stay in a health care setting. Community-acquired begins in the community; aspiration follows inhalation of material; ventilator-associated occurs during or after ventilator use.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 6.7 Pneumonia
According to the source, because naloxone has a relatively short duration of effect, the individual should be monitored for recurrence of opioid toxicity for at least how long after the last dose?
Why: The source states the individual should be monitored for recurrence of signs and symptoms of opioid toxicity for at least four hours from the last dose of naloxone, and people who overdosed on long-acting opioids like fentanyl require prolonged monitoring.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 14.2 Substances: Use, Intoxication, and Overdose
A patient's cast is found to be too tight and is restricting blood flow, causing signs of acute compartment syndrome. According to the source, what is the indicated action in this case?
Why: The source states ACS can be caused by a cast being too tight and restricting blood flow, in which case the cast is removed. Otherwise, treatment often requires emergency fasciotomy.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 10.6 Fracture
According to the source, a febrile seizure occurs in children between six months and five years old who have a fever of at least what temperature?
Why: The source defines a febrile seizure as a generalized seizure in pediatric patients between six months and five years old who have a fever of 100.4 F (38 C) or greater, not associated with a CNS infection.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.10 Febrile Seizures
A nurse assesses a patient with diabetes who suddenly becomes confused, shaky, diaphoretic, and tachycardic. Based on the source, these initial signs and symptoms most likely indicate which condition?
Why: The source lists confusion, shakiness or tremors, sweating, tachycardia, and anxiety as initial signs of hypoglycemia, triggered by epinephrine release. Nephropathy and retinopathy are chronic complications, not acute low-glucose signs.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 7.5 Diabetes Mellitus
A pregnant patient reports intense itching that started on the palms of her hands and soles of her feet. The source indicates this may signal which serious disorder?
Why: The source states that decreased gallbladder emptying can cause retention of bile salts, leading to intense itching starting with the palms and soles, which can be a sign of cholestasis of pregnancy. Cholestasis requires medication and/or delivery at 37 weeks and can cause sudden fetal death. PUPPP starts near abdominal striae.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.4 Changes During Pregnancy
A nurse steps away from a workstation during a busy shift. According to the confidentiality guidance in the source, what should the nurse do to protect electronic patient information?
Why: The source states that leaving a computer unlocked or charts unsecured breaches confidentiality; nurses should ensure computers are locked with a password when they step away, never share passwords, and keep paper charts closed and secured.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, Legal and Ethical Considerations
According to the source, what is the normal amniotic fluid index (AFI)?
Why: The source states a normal AFI is 5 cm to 25 cm and that a normal single pocket of amniotic fluid is greater than 2 cm. The other ranges do not match the value in the text.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.10 Third Trimester Prenatal Care
A nurse cares for a newborn with neonatal abstinence syndrome. According to the source, which cluster of findings is characteristic?
Why: The source states NAS withdrawal signs often include irritability with an inability to be consoled, high-pitched crying, hyperactive Moro reflexes, tremors, increased muscle tone, hyperthermia, and disorganized feeding.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.8 Exposure to Maternal Substance Use
A nurse presses a patient's fingernail until it blanches, then releases. According to the source, within what time should color return if there is sufficient blood flow?
Why: The source states that with sufficient blood flow, a pink color should return within 2 seconds after the pressure causing blanching is removed. Capillary refill greater than 3 seconds is an unexpected finding to document and report.
Source: Open RN Nursing Skills, 14.4 Integumentary Assessment
According to the source, the CIWA-Ar is the most widely used scale for which purpose?
Why: The source states the Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol Scale (CIWA-Ar) is the most widely used scale to determine the need for medically supervised withdrawal management, with ten questions rated 0 to 7 (orientation 0 to 4).
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 14.3 Withdrawal Management/Detoxification
A community health nurse is identifying vulnerable populations in the community. According to the source, which of the following is listed as an example of a vulnerable population?
Why: The source lists examples of vulnerable populations including the very young and very old, individuals with chronic illnesses or disabilities, veterans, racial and ethnic minorities, the LGBTQ population, human trafficking victims, incarcerated individuals, rural Americans, migrant workers, and homeless people.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations
According to the source, the surgical time-out is also designated as a time for team members to do which of the following?
Why: The source states the time-out is also a time designated for team members to voice any concerns about the patient's safety or the procedure.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.4 Intraoperative Nursing Care
A premature infant has a patent ductus arteriosus. According to the source, which medication may be given soon after birth to trigger the ductus arteriosus to constrict and close?
Why: The source states NSAIDs such as ibuprofen or indomethacin may be prescribed for a patent ductus arteriosus; when administered soon after birth, they trigger the PDA to constrict and close. Ibuprofen has a PDA closure efficacy of approximately 70-85%.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 17.5 Applying the Nursing Process to Congenital Heart Defects
A pregnant patient on insulin becomes symptomatic and can swallow. According to the source, how much fast-acting carbohydrate should she take?
Why: The source states patients are taught to treat symptomatic hypoglycemia with 15 grams of fast-acting carbohydrate, such as 4 ounces of fruit juice, 1 cup of low-fat milk, or three to four glucose tablets, then retest glucose 15 minutes later.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.8 Gestational and Pregestational Diabetes
A nurse works in a school setting developing health care plans, providing screenings, and administering medications to students. According to the source, this describes which community nursing role?
Why: The source describes school nurses as providing direct health care, administering medications and treatments, developing health care plans and emergency action plans, providing health screenings, and collaborating with parents and medical providers to advance academic success.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 16.2 Community Health Concepts
A nurse is caring for a patient with a severe asthma attack unresponsive to bronchodilators and corticosteroids, with worsening hypoxemia and a silent chest on auscultation. Based on the source, the nurse recognizes this as which condition?
Why: The source defines status asthmaticus as a severe, life-threatening asthma attack unresponsive to standard treatments such as bronchodilators and corticosteroids, characterized by worsening hypoxemia, cyanosis, and a silent chest with minimal or no breath sounds. It is a medical emergency.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 6.5 Asthma
A patient is diagnosed with gonorrhea. According to the source, sexual partners within what time frame should be notified and examined?
Why: The source states that for both gonorrhea and chlamydia, all sexual partners within the past 60 days should be notified and examined, keeping in mind that having no symptoms does not mean a person is infection-free.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 8.8 Sexually Transmitted Infections
A patient will take a proton pump inhibitor long term for peptic ulcer disease. The source notes long-term PPI use is associated with an increased occurrence of what, so calcium supplements may be recommended?
Why: The source states long-term use of PPIs has been associated with an increased occurrence of fractures, so calcium supplements may be recommended. Research also indicates a higher risk of developing dementia with long-term PPI use.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 11.10 Peptic Ulcer Disease
A child has ruptured lesions on the face that formed a honey-colored crust with a red base. According to the source, this is characteristic of which condition?
Why: The source states nonbullous impetigo starts as a vesicle or pustule that ruptures, causing a characteristic honey-colored crust with an erythematous (red) base, most common on the face and extremities.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.11 Impetigo
A patient taking lithium reports nausea, vomiting, thirst, and fine hand tremors. According to the source, these early signs of lithium toxicity are associated with which serum level range?
Why: The source lists early signs of lithium toxicity (less than 1.5 mEq/L) as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, thirst, polyuria, slurred speech, muscle weakness, or fine tremors. These should be promptly reported to the provider.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 6.4 Mood Stabilizer - Lithium
Three days after delivery, a new mother reports tearfulness, mild irritability, and feeling overwhelmed, but is still able to care for herself and her baby. According to the source, this is most consistent with which condition?
Why: The source describes the baby blues as affecting up to 70% of women, beginning within a few days of delivery with emotional lability, tearfulness, mild irritability, and feeling overwhelmed. These are usually mild, self-limited, and resolve within about two weeks.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 7.3 Types of Depression
According to the source, which hemoglobin A1C level is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus?
Why: The source states an HbA1C of 6.5% or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. Less than 5.7% is normal, and 5.7% to 6.4% indicates prediabetes. HbA1C reflects average glucose over the preceding two to three months.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 7.5 Diabetes Mellitus
A nurse educates a patient so the patient can make informed choices and learn self-management. According to the source, this reflects which level of advocacy?
Why: The source describes individual-level advocacy as educating the patient so they can make choices and learn self-management and decision-making. Policy-level advocacy brings patients' voices into legislation and regulation.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Advocacy
According to the source, a DEXA T-score of what value is diagnostic for osteoporosis?
Why: The source states a T-score between -1 and -2.5 indicates osteopenia, and a T-score lower than -2.5 is diagnostic for osteoporosis.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 10.8 Osteoporosis
A home-visiting nurse notes an older patient has unexplained bruises, weight loss, poor hygiene, and unexplained loss of money. According to the source, what should the nurse do?
Why: The source lists unexplained bruises, malnourishment or weight loss, poor hygiene, and unexplained loss of money as common signs of elder abuse or maltreatment. Nurses must be alert to these indications and report suspected incidents to local adult protective services agencies; in most cases a caregiver or trusted person is the perpetrator.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 5.8 Safety Considerations Across the Life Span
A patient using a peak flow meter has a reading that is 60% of their personal best, with worsening cough and some limitation of activity. According to the source's asthma action plan, this patient is in which zone?
Why: The source states peak flow readings of 50 to 79% of personal best indicate the Yellow (Caution) Zone, with worsening symptoms and partial activity limitation. Green Zone is at least 80% of personal best; there is no Blue Zone.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 6.5 Asthma
According to the source, each written order for a physical restraint or seclusion is limited to which maximum duration for an adult?
Why: The source states each written order for a physical restraint or seclusion is limited to 4 hours for adults, 2 hours for children and adolescents ages 9 to 17, and 1 hour for patients under 9. The 2-hour and 1-hour limits apply to younger age groups, not adults.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 5.7 Restraints
A nurse teaches a patient with CKD who has high potassium levels about foods to limit. According to the source, which foods should be limited?
Why: The source states that for patients with CKD and high potassium levels, intake of potassium-rich foods like bananas, oranges, potatoes, tomatoes, and dried fruits should be limited. The other foods are not identified as high-potassium items to restrict.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 8.6 Chronic Kidney Disease
An older hospitalized patient suddenly becomes confused, disoriented, and unable to think clearly after developing a urinary tract infection. According to the source, this presentation is most consistent with which condition?
Why: The source describes delirium as a mental state in which the patient becomes temporarily confused, disoriented, and unable to think or remember clearly. It usually starts suddenly, can indicate a life-threatening condition, and resolves as the underlying condition is treated.
Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 11.2 Psychosis and Delirium
A nurse inadvertently administered a wrong medication because two look-alike, sound-alike drugs were stored together. Using the Just Culture model, how should this simple human error be managed?
Why: The source states simple human error is managed by CONSOLING the individual and fixing the system or process, for example when root cause analysis reveals look-alike/sound-alike meds stored together and labeling or storage is changed. Punitive action is reserved for reckless behavior.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Leadership and Management
According to the staging table in the source, a moderate reduction in GFR of 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m squared corresponds to which stage of chronic kidney disease?
Why: The source's staging table lists Stage 3 as a moderate reduction in GFR of 30-59 mL/min/1.73 m squared. Stage 1 is 90 or higher, Stage 2 is 60-89, and Stage 5 is less than 15.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 8.6 Chronic Kidney Disease
According to the source, what is the most common type of conjunctivitis?
Why: The source states the most common type is conjunctivitis caused by a viral infection, usually adenovirus.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.6 Conjunctivitis
According to the source, macrosomia (large birth weight) in an infant of a diabetic mother is typically defined as a weight greater than what?
Why: The source states untreated diabetes with elevated glucose causes macrosomia, where the newborn typically weighs more than 8 pounds 13 ounces (4,000 grams). The other weights do not match the value stated.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.8 Gestational and Pregestational Diabetes
A nurse applies topical antibiotic to a child's nonbullous impetigo. According to the source, what must be done first for the medication to be absorbed?
Why: The source states topical antibiotics are often sufficient for nonbullous impetigo, but crusts must first be removed with soap and water before applying the antibiotic to promote absorption.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.11 Impetigo
According to the source, varicella (chickenpox) is caused by which virus?
Why: The source states varicella is the result of primary infection with the varicella-zoster virus, a member of the herpes virus family, and commonly occurs in patients aged four to ten years old.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.21 Varicella
A nurse participates in utilization review. What does utilization review investigate according to the source?
Why: The source defines utilization review as the investigation of health care services to ensure money is not wasted on unnecessary or inefficient care and to measure resource use.
Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Quality and Evidence-Based Practice
According to the source, orders for the use of seclusion or restraint:
Why: The source states orders for seclusion or restraint can never be written as a standing order or PRN (as needed), and that after an order expires a practitioner must reassess the patient before a new order. PRN or standing orders and indefinite renewal are explicitly prohibited.
Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 5.7 Restraints
According to the source, the amount of a drug required to produce the desired effect is referred to as its:
Why: The source defines potency as the amount of the drug required to produce the desired effect. A highly potent drug may need only a minimal dose, whereas a low-potency drug must be given at much higher concentrations, as seen with opioid versus non-opioid analgesics.
Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology, 1.11 Preparing for Administration
According to the source, by what age should an infant's weight typically be triple their birth weight?
Why: The source states that the weight of a five month old should be double their birth weight, and the weight of a one year old should be triple their birth weight. A newborn weighing 7 pounds would weigh about 21 pounds at one year.
Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 13.3 Stages of Child Development