Lantern Prep

MOHAP RN Exam (UAE), Practice Questions

Practice for the MOHAP (UAE Ministry of Health and Prevention) registered-nurse evaluation: original four-option questions built on the shared Gulf nursing core (the public SCFHS SNLE blueprint), with source-cited rationales.
Content last updated 6 July 2026 · every question independently verified against its cited source

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Lantern Prep is an independent study aid. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by SCFHS, DHA, DOH Abu Dhabi, MOHAP, QCHP, Prometric, or any regulator or testing provider. Regulator and provider names are used only to identify the exams candidates prepare for. All questions are original, written to the public SCFHS SNLE blueprint and open nursing references; no recalled, leaked, or actual exam content, ever. Educational study aid only, not medical advice or clinical guidance. Practice standards evolve and local policies differ; always follow your institution’s current protocols and the regulator’s official materials.

Frequently asked questions

How is the MOHAP RN Exam (UAE) structured?

The exam is 150 MCQs in about 165 minutes (as commonly published for MOHAP nursing evaluations), four-option single best answer. Question domains follow the shared Gulf nursing core: Nursing Fundamentals, Adult (medical-surgical, critical care, community, mental health) Nursing, Maternal-Child Nursing, and Nursing Management — the structure published in the SCFHS SNLE blueprint. Always confirm current format details in your official applicant materials.

What score do I need to pass?

MOHAP communicates the official pass mark to applicants. We score your practice against a 60% benchmark as a conservative readiness guide — confirm the current pass mark in your applicant materials.

Are these real or recalled MOHAP exam questions?

No — and that matters. Selling ‘recalled’ or ‘actual’ exam questions violates the confidentiality agreement every candidate signs and can put your licence application at risk. Every Lantern Prep question is original, written to the public SCFHS SNLE blueprint and grounded in open, authoritative nursing references, with the source cited in every rationale.

How many practice questions are included?

The bank currently contains 1211 verified questions with source-cited rationales, distributed to the blueprint weighting (Fundamentals 20%, Adult 40%, Maternal-Child 30%, Management 10%). It is growing steadily — every question ships only after an independent verification pass against its cited source.

Does one purchase cover other Gulf regulators?

The core nursing content is shared across SCFHS, DHA, DOH Abu Dhabi, MOHAP, and QCHP — the exams test the same registered-nurse fundamentals. Each regulator page packages the bank to that exam’s length and timing.

What does access cost?

$29, one time, lifetime access. No subscription, no account needed.

Can I use it on more than one device?

Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices. Your progress is saved on each device.

Is Lantern Prep affiliated with MOHAP or Prometric?

No. Lantern Prep is an independent study aid and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by any regulator or testing provider.

What topics does the MOHAP RN Exam (UAE) question bank cover?

It is organised into 4 modules that follow the exam's own content areas: Nursing Fundamentals, Adult Nursing, Maternal-Child Nursing and Nursing Management and Leadership. Each module is drilled and scored separately, so you can see exactly which areas are exam-ready and which still need work.

When was this question bank last updated?

Last updated 6 July 2026. The bank is revised whenever the source material it cites changes, and every question carries the source its explanation is drawn from.

Sample MOHAP RN Exam (UAE) practice questions

A selection of free questions with answers and source-cited rationales. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.

A nurse describes the relationship between evidence-based practice and research. Which statement reflects the source?

  1. EBP and research are unrelated activities that never inform each other
  2. Research replaces EBP once new innovations are discovered
  3. EBP means continuing existing practices simply because that is the way they have always been done on the unit
  4. EBP cannot exist without ongoing research, and research requires nurses to apply findings ✓

Why: The source states EBP and research are partners: EBP cannot exist without ongoing research, and research requires nurses to evaluate and apply findings. Translating evidence into practice means incorporating new research findings into practice.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Quality and Evidence-Based Practice

A patient using a peak flow meter has a reading that is 60% of their personal best, with worsening cough and some limitation of activity. According to the source's asthma action plan, this patient is in which zone?

  1. Yellow Zone ✓
  2. Green Zone
  3. Red Zone
  4. Blue Zone

Why: The source states peak flow readings of 50 to 79% of personal best indicate the Yellow (Caution) Zone, with worsening symptoms and partial activity limitation. Green Zone is at least 80% of personal best; there is no Blue Zone.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 6.5 Asthma

According to the source, cell-free DNA (cfDNA) testing screens the maternal blood for abnormalities of which chromosomes?

  1. Chromosomes 8, 15, and 22 only
  2. Chromosomes 13, 18, and 21 ✓
  3. Chromosomes 9, 16, and 20
  4. Chromosomes 5, 11, and 14

Why: The source states cfDNA analyzes maternal blood for abnormal DNA from chromosomes 21, 18, and 13, screening for trisomy 21 (Down syndrome), trisomy 18 (Edwards syndrome), and trisomy 13 (Patau syndrome). The other chromosome sets are not those named in the text.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.8 First Trimester Prenatal Care

Show more sample questions with answers & rationales

According to the source, lithium blood levels should be drawn how long after the last dose was taken?

  1. 1-2 hours after the last dose
  2. 24-36 hours after the last dose
  3. Immediately before the first morning dose only
  4. 10-12 hours after the last dose ✓

Why: The source states therapeutic blood levels are required and that blood levels are drawn 10-12 hours after the last dose taken. The therapeutic lithium serum level is 0.6-1.2 mEq/L.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 6.4 Mood Stabilizer - Lithium

Transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) is described by the source as resulting from which cause?

  1. An allergic response to donor plasma proteins
  2. Volume overload from an overly rapid rate or amount ✓
  3. Bacterial contamination of the blood product
  4. ABO blood incompatibility between the donor and recipient

Why: The source states TACO occurs when the volume of the transfusing blood component causes volume overload (hypervolemia) from an overly rapid administration rate or amount, presenting with crackles, dyspnea, and jugular vein distension.

Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 3.2 Basic Concepts

A tracing shows decelerations that begin during the contraction with the nadir occurring after the peak. According to the source, what do these indicate?

  1. Benign fetal head compression
  2. Reassuring fetal well-being
  3. Umbilical cord compression only
  4. Fetal hypoxia (nonreassuring) ✓

Why: The source defines a late deceleration as one that begins during the contraction and continues after it, with the nadir after the peak, and states it is nonreassuring and indicates fetal hypoxia. Early decelerations from head compression are benign; variable decelerations reflect cord compression.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 10.5 Fetal Heart Rate Monitoring

According to the source, croup is more formally known as which of the following?

  1. Laryngotracheobronchitis ✓
  2. Acute epiglottitis of the airway
  3. Bronchiolitis
  4. Pharyngotonsillitis

Why: The source states croup, more formally known as laryngotracheobronchitis, leads to inflammation of the trachea, larynx, and bronchi.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 15.8 Croup

According to the source, room air contains what concentration of oxygen (FiO2)?

  1. 10%
  2. 21% ✓
  3. 50%
  4. 100%

Why: The source states room air contains 21% oxygen concentration, so the FiO2 for supplementary oxygen therapy ranges from 21% to 100%. The oxygen flow rate on a flow meter ranges between 1 L/minute and 15 L/minute.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 11.2 Basic Concepts of Oxygenation

The source states hepatitis A is commonly transmitted by which route?

  1. Contaminated blood transfusion
  2. Sexual contact only
  3. Fecal-to-oral route ✓
  4. Airborne droplets

Why: The source states hepatitis A is commonly transmitted via the fecal-to-oral route and is common in places with poor sanitation. Hepatitis B and C are transmitted via contact with infected body fluids.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 11.15 Hepatitis

According to the source, alpha-2 adrenergic agonists such as clonidine relieve which symptoms of opioid withdrawal most effectively?

  1. Muscle aches, insomnia, and drug craving
  2. Only psychiatric symptoms such as hallucinations
  3. Autonomic symptoms such as sweating, diarrhea, and nausea ✓
  4. Respiratory depression and sedation

Why: The source states alpha-2 adrenergic agonists including clonidine and lofexidine effectively relieve autonomic symptoms of sweating, diarrhea, intestinal cramps, nausea, anxiety, and irritability, but are least effective for myalgias, restlessness, insomnia, and craving.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 14.3 Withdrawal Management/Detoxification

A community health nurse is identifying vulnerable populations in the community. According to the source, which of the following is listed as an example of a vulnerable population?

  1. Homeless people and migrant workers ✓
  2. Salaried office managers
  3. Licensed physicians
  4. Owners of large corporations

Why: The source lists examples of vulnerable populations including the very young and very old, individuals with chronic illnesses or disabilities, veterans, racial and ethnic minorities, the LGBTQ population, human trafficking victims, incarcerated individuals, rural Americans, migrant workers, and homeless people.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations

According to the source, how does a patient's total Braden Scale score relate to their pressure injury risk?

  1. The higher the score, the higher the risk of developing a pressure injury
  2. The score reflects existing wounds rather than future risk of injury
  3. Any score below 18 indicates the patient already has a pressure injury
  4. The lower the score, the higher the risk of developing a pressure injury ✓

Why: The source states the lower the score, the higher the risk of developing a pressure injury, and the more aggressive the preventive interventions taken. The score predicts risk rather than confirming an existing wound, so the other options are incorrect.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 10.5 Braden Scale

According to the source, any pregnancy loss that occurs before which gestational age is referred to as an abortion?

  1. Before 20 weeks' gestation ✓
  2. Before 12 weeks' gestation
  3. Before 24 weeks' gestation
  4. Before 28 weeks' gestation

Why: The source states any pregnancy loss that occurs before 20 weeks' gestation is referred to as an abortion, which includes elective, spontaneous, threatened, inevitable, complete, incomplete, and missed types. The other gestational ages do not match the definition.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.14 Pregnancy Loss and Fetal Demise

Per the HIV screening guidance cited in the source, all people within which age range should be tested at least once for HIV?

  1. Ages 18 to 30
  2. Ages 21 to 65
  3. Ages 13 to 64 ✓
  4. Ages 15 to 49

Why: The source cites screening guidance that all people between the ages of 13 and 64 should be tested at least once for HIV. It also notes anyone sexually active who shares needles should be tested for HIV yearly.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 8.5 Reproductive Screening

A child with conjunctivitis has purulent discharge that sticks to the eyelashes. According to the source, this finding is most consistent with which cause?

  1. A viral cause
  2. A bacterial cause ✓
  3. An allergic cause
  4. A toxin exposure

Why: The source states that with a bacterial cause, discharge is purulent and may stick to the eyelashes, whereas viral and allergic forms have a watery discharge.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.6 Conjunctivitis

A nurse distinguishes competence from capacity. According to the source, which statement is correct?

  1. Competence is routinely assessed by the bedside nurse, while capacity is instead decided by a judge
  2. Both competence and capacity are formally determined at the bedside by the nurse providing care
  3. Competence is a legal determination made by a judge; capacity is a functional determination ✓
  4. Capacity is a permanent legal status that, once assigned, cannot ever change or be re-evaluated

Why: The source states competence is a LEGAL determination decided by a judge of ability to participate in legal proceedings, whereas capacity is a FUNCTIONAL determination of whether an individual can make a specific medical decision. Nurses do not formally assess capacity but may initiate evaluation and contribute data.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Legal Implications

A nurse administers a diuretic to a patient with heart failure. Based on the source, which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for as a potential effect of the therapy?

  1. Hyperkalemia
  2. Hypernatremia
  3. Hypokalemia ✓
  4. Hypercalcemia

Why: The source states diuretics can cause hypokalemia and other electrolyte imbalances, so electrolytes must be monitored and potassium supplementation may be required. The other imbalances are not identified.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 5.8 Heart Failure

A child is having a febrile seizure. According to the source, which nursing action ensures safety?

  1. Restrain the child's arms and legs very firmly
  2. Insert a padded tongue blade in the mouth
  3. Place the child on their side to prevent aspiration ✓
  4. Hold the child tightly in an upright position

Why: The source states to ensure safety by placing the child on their side to prevent aspiration of oral secretions and removing nearby objects; the child should NOT be restrained, as this can lead to trauma.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.10 Febrile Seizures

According to the source, infertility is defined as a couple being unable to conceive after what duration of unprotected sex?

  1. One year or longer of unprotected sex ✓
  2. Three months of unprotected sex
  3. Six weeks of unprotected sex
  4. Two years of unprotected sex

Why: The source defines infertility as a couple not being able to get pregnant after one year (or longer) of unprotected sex. It states that among women aged 15 to 49 with no prior births, about 1 in 5 are unable to conceive after one year of trying.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 8.6 Fertility

A patient is admitted after a stroke and requires objective monitoring of level of consciousness. According to the source, which tool is frequently used for this purpose?

  1. The Braden Scale
  2. The Glasgow Coma Scale ✓
  3. The PQRSTU method
  4. Gordon's Functional Health Patterns

Why: The source states the Glasgow Coma Scale is frequently used to objectively monitor level of consciousness in patients with neurological damage such as a head injury or cerebrovascular accident (stroke). It is part of a routine neurological exam performed by registered nurses.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 6.3 Neurological Exam

According to the source, effective HIV treatment during pregnancy has reduced the mother-to-infant transmission rate to what level?

  1. About 5%
  2. About 10%
  3. About 25%
  4. Less than 1% ✓

Why: The source states that many effective medications reduce and prevent HIV spread from mother to child, and these treatments have led to a dramatic decrease in the mother-to-infant transmission rate to less than 1%. Antiretroviral prophylaxis is also given to the infant.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.2 High-Risk Pregnancy

A patient taking lithium develops ataxia, blurred vision, severe hypotension, and confusion. According to the source, these severe signs of toxicity correspond to which serum level?

  1. Less than 1.5 mEq/L
  2. Greater than 2.0 mEq/L ✓
  3. 0.6-1.2 mEq/L
  4. A level of 1.6-1.9 mEq/L

Why: The source lists severe signs of lithium toxicity (greater than 2.0 mEq/L) as ataxia, blurred vision, large output of dilute urine, severe hypotension, clonic movements, overt confusion, cardiac dysrhythmias, and death secondary to pulmonary complications.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 6.4 Mood Stabilizer - Lithium

According to the source, stridor is a characteristic symptom of which severity of croup?

  1. Mild croup
  2. Severe croup ✓
  3. Resolving croup
  4. Early croup

Why: The source states that if swelling worsens, a high-pitched sound called stridor can occur as the patient breathes through an obstructed airway; stridor is a characteristic symptom of severe croup.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 15.8 Croup

A patient has primary dysmenorrhea. According to the source, which is the first-line pharmacologic treatment?

  1. Opioid analgesics such as oxycodone
  2. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) ✓
  3. Broad-spectrum oral antibiotics
  4. Loop diuretics such as furosemide

Why: The source states NSAIDs such as ibuprofen or naproxen are prescribed as first-line pharmacologic treatment to inhibit prostaglandin synthesis and reduce pain in dysmenorrhea. Hormonal therapies may also be prescribed to suppress ovulation.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 18.8 Dysmenorrhea

According to the source, what are the six rights of medication administration that must be verified before administering a medication?

  1. Right patient, drug, dose, provider, pharmacy, and cost
  2. Right patient, diagnosis, dose, time, route, and refusal
  3. Right drug, dose, allergy, history, education, and refusal
  4. Right patient, drug, dose, time, route, and documentation ✓

Why: The source lists the six rights of medication administration as Right Patient, Right Drug, Right Dose, Right Time, Right Route, and Right Documentation. These must be verified by the nurse at least three times before administering a medication; additional rights (history/assessment, drug interactions, refusal, education) extend the list up to ten.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills, 15.2 Basic Concepts of Administering Medications

A nurse observes rise and fall of the fluid in the water seal chamber of a patient's chest tube with breathing. According to the source, this tidaling indicates what?

  1. An air leak requiring provider notification
  2. The drainage system must be replaced
  3. The lung has completely collapsed
  4. The chest tube is patent ✓

Why: The source states the water may rise with inhalation and fall with exhalation, called tidaling, which indicates the chest tube is patent. Continuous bubbling, not tidaling, may indicate an air leak.

Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 6.2 Chest Tube Basic Concepts

According to the source, all blood products must be completely administered within what maximum time?

  1. Less than eight hours
  2. Less than two hours
  3. Less than four hours ✓
  4. Less than twelve hours

Why: The source states all blood products must be completely administered in less than four hours, and administration sets are changed at the completion of every unit or every four hours to reduce bacterial contamination.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 3.5 Anemia

A nurse is educating a patient on home oxygen safety. According to the source, oxygen delivery systems should be kept at least how far from any heat source?

  1. At least 1 foot
  2. At least 5 feet ✓
  3. At least 15 feet
  4. At least 25 feet

Why: The source's oxygen safety guidelines state that oxygen delivery systems should be kept at least 5 feet from any heat source, because oxygen supports combustion. No smoking is permitted near oxygen devices, and petroleum-based lubricants should not be used near a nasal cannula due to flammability risk.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills, 11.3 Oxygenation Equipment

According to the source, where is the neonate with gastroschisis or omphalocele cared for around the time of corrective surgery, and what nutritional support may be needed afterward?

  1. On a general postpartum unit with routine oral feedings only
  2. In a NICU before and after surgery; parenteral nutrition may be needed ✓
  3. At home with scheduled outpatient follow-up and no special nutrition
  4. In an isolation room on total bowel rest with no nutrition provided

Why: The source states the neonate with gastroschisis or omphalocele is cared for in a NICU both before and after surgery. After the repair, infants may have problems digesting food and absorbing nutrients and may require parenteral nutrition.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.6 Congenital and Genetic Disorders

After delegating a task, the licensed nurse provides supervision. Which action best reflects supervision as defined in the source?

  1. Transferring the nurse's own license accountability for the patient fully to the delegatee
  2. Verifying and evaluating that the delegated task was performed correctly and safely ✓
  3. Requiring the delegatee to independently reassign or re-delegate the task if they become busy
  4. Refraining from any further involvement or follow-up once the task has been delegated to the person

Why: The source defines supervision as the licensed nurse verifying and evaluating that a delegated task was performed correctly, appropriately, safely, and competently. The nurse monitors the activity, follows up at completion, evaluates outcomes, and remains available to intervene.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Delegation and Supervision

A nurse receives a written order containing an ISMP error-prone abbreviation such as 'qd'. According to the source, what is the appropriate action?

  1. Clarify with the provider and have the order rewritten without it ✓
  2. Administer as written since the intent is usually obvious
  3. Interpret the abbreviation independently and proceed with the dose
  4. Transcribe the abbreviation into the MAR exactly as received

Why: The source states that if a nurse receives a prescription containing an error-prone abbreviation, it should be clarified with the provider and the order rewritten without the abbreviation. These abbreviations are frequently misinterpreted and should never be used, so administering or transcribing them as written is unsafe.

Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 2.5 Preventing Medication Errors

According to the source's NRP sequence, chest compressions are started when the heart rate is less than which value after 30 seconds of effective PPV?

  1. Less than 100 bpm
  2. Less than 60 bpm ✓
  3. Less than 80 bpm
  4. Less than 40 bpm

Why: The source states to provide chest compressions if the heart rate is less than 60 bpm after 30 seconds of PPV, using the two-thumb technique with a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 3:1 (90 compressions and 30 breaths per minute).

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.9 Neonatal Resuscitation

A nurse is floated to an unfamiliar unit and is given an assignment that clearly exceeds their skill set and orientation. According to professional nursing guidance in the source, what is the nurse's obligation?

  1. Refuse the assignment because nurses have an obligation to refuse unsafe assignments ✓
  2. Accept the unsafe assignment anyway, because floating to another unit is required under any condition
  3. Delegate the entire assignment to available assistive personnel
  4. Leave the facility immediately without notifying anyone

Why: The source states that when floating, the nurse remains accountable under the nursing scope-of-practice regulations and should ensure the assignment fits their skill set and receive orientation; per professional nursing guidance, nurses have an OBLIGATION to refuse an unsafe assignment.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Health Care Economics

According to the source, the surgical time-out is also designated as a time for team members to do which of the following?

  1. Complete the full postoperative handoff report to the PACU nurse
  2. Change into sterile surgical gowns and gloves before scrubbing
  3. Administer the prescribed prophylactic preoperative antibiotics
  4. Voice any concerns about the patient's safety or the procedure ✓

Why: The source states the time-out is also a time designated for team members to voice any concerns about the patient's safety or the procedure.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.4 Intraoperative Nursing Care

During a dressing change the nurse observes wound tissue that is pink, moist, painless, and slightly bumpy. How should the nurse interpret this finding based on the source?

  1. Unhealthy tissue that must be debrided immediately
  2. A sign of active wound infection requiring immediate systemic antibiotic therapy and debridement
  3. Healthy granulation tissue that should be protected during the dressing change ✓
  4. Necrotic tissue indicating the wound is not healing

Why: The source describes healthy granulation tissue as pink (due to new capillary formation), moist, painless to the touch, and possibly bumpy. It is essential for the nurse to protect this granulation tissue and its new capillaries. Unhealthy granulation tissue is dark red, painful, and bleeds easily.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 10.3 Wounds

A nurse performs final preparation of a patient before transport to surgery. What should the nurse do with the patient's dentures, glasses, and hearing aids?

  1. Tape them securely in place for surgery
  2. Remove them before surgery ✓
  3. Send them with the patient to the OR
  4. Leave them in place for patient comfort

Why: The source states that in final preparation, dentures are removed, as well as glasses/contacts and hearing aids. All pierced jewelry is removed to minimize the risk of injury during surgery.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.3 Preoperative Nursing Care

Immediately after a patient's tonic-clonic seizure ends, which nursing action does the source identify to prevent aspiration?

  1. Place the patient flat in the supine position
  2. Keep the patient positioned on their side ✓
  3. Sit the patient fully upright and offer fluids
  4. Insert an oral airway and begin suctioning

Why: The source states that after a seizure, the nurse should keep the patient on their side to prevent aspiration and ensure the airway is open and patent. There is often a period of confusion after a tonic-clonic seizure, so a safe environment is maintained.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 9.7 Seizures and Epilepsy

According to the source, how many times must the rights of medication administration be verified before giving a medication to a patient?

  1. Once, at the bedside
  2. At least three times ✓
  3. At least five times
  4. Twice, before and after administration

Why: The source states the six rights of medication administration must be verified by the nurse at least three times before administering: first as the medication is removed from the dispensing machine, second before pouring or removing from a multidose container, and third immediately before administering at the bedside.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills, 15.2 Basic Concepts of Administering Medications

According to the source, thrombocytopenia is characterized by a decreased number of which blood component?

  1. Red blood cells
  2. Platelets ✓
  3. White blood cells
  4. Plasma proteins

Why: The source defines thrombocytopenia as a decreased number of platelets in the blood, which may occur due to factors affecting platelet production, destruction, or utilization.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 3.10 Thrombocytopenia

A nurse is monitoring a patient with a hemorrhagic stroke for increased intracranial pressure. According to the source, what is the earliest sign of increased ICP?

  1. Bradycardia
  2. Decreased level of consciousness ✓
  3. Abnormal posturing
  4. Severe hypertension with a widening pulse pressure

Why: The source states the earliest sign of increased ICP is decreased level of consciousness. Abnormal posturing, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are listed as later or severe manifestations.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 9.9 Cerebrovascular Accident

A nurse reviews the CBC of a patient with sickle cell disease. Per the source, the red blood cells have a shortened life span of approximately how many days, versus a typical 120 days?

  1. 60-90 days
  2. 10-20 days ✓
  3. 1-5 days
  4. 100-110 days

Why: The source states that in SCD the red blood cells have a shorter life span of only about 10-20 days versus a typical life span of 120 days. This shortened span leads to anemia and a high reticulocyte count.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 3.8 Sickle Cell Disease

According to the source, tumor lysis syndrome occurs when tumor cells break down in response to treatment. Which electrolyte pattern does it describe?

  1. Decreased serum potassium together with an increased serum calcium level
  2. Increased uric acid, phosphorus, and potassium; decreased calcium ✓
  3. Increased sodium with decreased serum phosphorus levels
  4. Decreased uric acid with increased serum calcium levels

Why: The source states tumor lysis syndrome causes increased serum levels of uric acid, phosphorus, and potassium and decreased levels of calcium, along with signs of kidney failure. Treatment includes aggressive hydration and rasburicase to decrease uric acid.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 4.3 Cancer

According to the source, the term describing the amount of a drug that remains circulating and available in the bloodstream to have an effect is:

  1. Selectivity
  2. Potency
  3. Bioavailability ✓
  4. Excretion

Why: The source describes bioavailability as the concept of how much of a drug is left circulating within the bloodstream, an important feature chemists consider when designing and packaging medicines because performance in the body does not always match laboratory results.

Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology, 1.2 Pharmacokinetics

A patient with PUD develops a sudden change in abdominal pain along with changes in vital signs. According to the source, these findings should alert the nurse to which potential complication?

  1. Resolution of the ulcer
  2. A new food allergy
  3. A marked improvement in the patient's nutritional status
  4. Perforation or hemorrhage of the ulcer ✓

Why: The source states sudden changes in pain can occur with ulcer perforation, and changes in vital signs could indicate a potential complication such as perforation or hemorrhage. The nurse also assesses emesis and stool for blood.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 11.10 Peptic Ulcer Disease

A patient scheduled for surgery tells the nurse, "I signed the form, but I still don't understand what the surgeon is going to remove." What is the nurse's most appropriate action based on the source?

  1. Explain the surgical procedure, its benefits, and its risks in full detail to the patient personally
  2. Reassure the patient that signing the form means consent is already complete
  3. Witness the signature again and document that teaching was fully completed
  4. Notify the provider and advocate for further discussion before the form is acted upon ✓

Why: The source states it is the provider's responsibility to discuss the treatment, and that if the patient expresses questions or lack of understanding, the nurse has an ethical responsibility to notify the provider and advocate for further discussion. It also states it is not the nurse's role to provide the information, so explaining the procedure or reassuring the patient would be incorrect.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 1.6 Legal & Ethical Considerations

According to the source, what dose of Rho(D) immune globulin (RhoGAM) is administered at 28 weeks of pregnancy to an Rh-negative patient?

  1. 50 micrograms
  2. 150 micrograms
  3. 600 micrograms
  4. 300 micrograms ✓

Why: The source states the dosage of Rho(D) immune globulin is 300 micrograms at 28 weeks of pregnancy and 50 micrograms after a first-trimester miscarriage or abortion. The 50-microgram dose applies only to early loss, not the 28-week dose.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.9 Second Trimester Prenatal Care

A patient suddenly becomes acutely hypoxic. According to the source, regarding initiating oxygen therapy the nurse should understand that:

  1. Oxygen may be initiated without an order in emergencies as part of the ABCs ✓
  2. Oxygen must never be applied to a patient without a written physician's order
  3. Only a respiratory therapist is permitted to apply oxygen to any patient
  4. Oxygen should be withheld until an arterial blood gas confirms hypoxemia

Why: The source states acute hypoxia is a medical emergency treated promptly with oxygen. Although oxygen is a medication requiring a prescription, oxygen therapy may be initiated without a physician's order in emergency situations as part of the nurse's response to the ABCs (airway, breathing, circulation), per agency protocol; the nurse then contacts the provider or rapid response team.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 11.2 Basic Concepts of Oxygenation

A child is diagnosed with pinworm. According to the source, what is recommended regarding treatment of the household?

  1. Treat only the one child who has active symptoms
  2. Treat only family members who report itching
  3. No treatment of other household members is needed
  4. Treat everyone in the household to prevent recurrence ✓

Why: The source states treatment consists of anti-parasitic medications, and it is recommended to treat everyone in the household to prevent recurrence, even if they have no symptoms.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.22 Other Pediatric Disorders

According to the source, what is the most common cause of a newborn being large for gestational age (LGA)?

  1. Preterm delivery
  2. Maternal diabetes during pregnancy ✓
  3. Maternal smoking
  4. Maternal preeclampsia

Why: The source states the most common cause of LGA is maternal diabetes during pregnancy, which causes elevated blood glucose levels resulting in excessive fetal growth and fat deposits.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.4 Birth Weight

A patient asks the nurse who is responsible for obtaining the signed consent for their upcoming surgery. Who holds this responsibility?

  1. The surgeon ✓
  2. The perioperative nurse
  3. The anesthesiologist
  4. The surgical technologist

Why: The source states that while the responsibility of obtaining signed consent lies with the surgeon, nurses play a crucial role by assisting in obtaining and witnessing the patient's signature and clarifying facts presented by the physician.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.2 Basic Concepts Related to Surgery

According to the source, the normal resting pulse (heart rate) for an adult is:

  1. 80-140 beats per minute
  2. 100-160 beats per minute
  3. 40-60 beats per minute
  4. 60-100 beats per minute ✓

Why: The source states the normal adult pulse rate at rest is 60-100 beats per minute. The 80-140 range is for infants and 100-160 for newborns; 40-60 is not a normal adult range in the source.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 1.3 Vital Signs

A nurse suspects, but is not certain, that an older adult patient is being abused by a caregiver. According to the source's principle of mandatory reporting, what should the nurse do?

  1. Wait until abuse is proven before reporting anything
  2. Report the suspected abuse to the appropriate agency ✓
  3. Confront the caregiver directly and take no further action
  4. Document the concern but avoid reporting it

Why: The source states mandated reporters who suspect neglect or abuse should contact the appropriate agency immediately and describe the situation, reporting what they know. Reporting is based on suspicion, not proof; the receiving department determines whether it meets criteria for investigation.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 15.4 Abuse and Neglect

According to the source, how is surfactant administered to a newborn with respiratory distress syndrome?

  1. Given orally mixed in with the newborn's feedings
  2. By an intramuscular injection into the infant's thigh
  3. Through a nasogastric tube passed into the stomach
  4. Directly into the lungs through an endotracheal tube ✓

Why: The source states surfactant is administered directly into the newborn's lungs through an endotracheal tube, usually shortly after birth of a premature infant showing signs of RDS.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.2 Preterm Birth

An Rh-negative patient with a negative antibody screen receives RhoGAM at 28 weeks. According to the source, what is the purpose of this medication?

  1. To prevent the patient from producing antibodies against Rh-positive fetal blood ✓
  2. To treat the existing physiologic anemia that develops during a normal pregnancy
  3. To actively destroy Rh-positive fetal red blood cells already in the circulation
  4. To raise the maternal platelet count to a safe level before the onset of labor

Why: The source states antepartum RhoGAM is administered to prevent the patient from producing antibodies against Rh-positive blood, that is, to interrupt Rh sensitization. Its mechanism prevents antibody production; it does not treat anemia or raise platelets.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.9 Second Trimester Prenatal Care

During an invasive procedure on a young child, which action does the source recommend to reduce distress?

  1. Place the child supine and use soft restraints
  2. Allow the child to sit upright rather than supine ✓
  3. Have the child lie flat and still
  4. Separate the child from the parent

Why: The source states that during a procedure, supine positioning and restraints should be avoided; children are less distressed when they sit upright because it increases their sense of control. Younger children may sit on the parent's lap.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 14.2 Role of the Nurse When Caring for Ill or Hospitalized Pediatric Clients

A nurse reviews a patient's serum digoxin level. Which range does the source identify as the normal therapeutic range?

  1. 3.5 to 5.0 ng/mL
  2. 10 to 20 ng/mL
  3. 2 to 4 ng/mL
  4. 0.8 to 2 ng/mL ✓

Why: The source states the normal therapeutic range for serum digoxin is 0.8 to 2 ng/mL, and toxicity typically occurs above 2 ng/mL. The 3.5 to 5.0 value is the normal potassium level, and the other ranges are not digoxin therapeutic values in the text.

Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 6.7 Cardiac Glycosides

According to the ANA as cited in the source, advocacy is best defined as which of the following?

  1. The investigation of health care services to prevent money being wasted on unnecessary care
  2. A civil wrong under private law that causes physical or emotional harm to the patient
  3. A reimbursement model that ties a hospital's payment to measured patient outcomes and safety
  4. The act or process of pleading for, supporting, or recommending a cause or course of action ✓

Why: The source cites the ANA definition of advocacy as the act or process of pleading for, supporting, or recommending a cause or course of action, and identifies it as an ANA Standard of Professional Performance.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Advocacy

A newborn undergoes critical congenital heart defect screening at 24 hours of age. According to the source, where is the pulse oximetry measured?

  1. Both the right and left hands measured at the same time
  2. The forehead and one foot simultaneously
  3. The left hand and the left foot only
  4. The right hand (preductal) and either foot (postductal) ✓

Why: The source states pulse oximetry is performed at 24 hours of age on the right hand (preductal) and either foot (postductal); if both readings are >=95% with no more than a 3% difference, the infant is at less risk for critical defects.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 17.3 Categories of Congenital Heart Defects - Acyanotic and Cyanotic Defects

A nurse is prioritizing problems for one patient. Applying the actual-versus-potential data cue, which nursing problem should generally be prioritized?

  1. Risk for Skin Breakdown related to prolonged immobility and pressure over bony areas
  2. Risk for Falls related to a new sedating medication
  3. Ineffective Airway Clearance with ineffective cough and crackles ✓
  4. Risk for Infection related to a peripheral IV catheter

Why: The source states an actual problem (e.g., Ineffective Airway Clearance with ineffective cough and crackles) is generally prioritized over a potential/risk problem (e.g., Risk for Skin Breakdown). Actual problems require active intervention such as coughing, deep breathing, and evaluating oxygen therapy.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Prioritization

The National Patient Safety Goals direct staff to identify patients correctly. According to the source, this is accomplished by:

  1. Using at least two ways to identify the patient, such as name and date of birth ✓
  2. Confirming the patient's room and bed number before providing any care
  3. Asking a family member to verify the patient's identity at the bedside
  4. Checking the patient's identification against the door nameplate on the room

Why: The source's Table 5.5 states to use at least two ways to identify patients, for example the patient's name and date of birth, so each patient gets the correct medication and treatment. Room number, family verification, and door nameplates are not the specified identifiers.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 5.5 National Patient Safety Goals

According to the source, which statement about delirium is correct?

  1. It usually starts suddenly and resolves as the underlying condition is treated ✓
  2. It develops gradually over years and is permanent
  3. It is caused only by psychiatric illness, not medical conditions
  4. It never occurs in older adults

Why: The source states delirium usually starts suddenly, can indicate the onset of a life-threatening medical condition, and resolves as the underlying condition is effectively treated. Advanced age makes individuals more vulnerable to delirium.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 11.2 Psychosis and Delirium

A nurse teaches a preoperative patient about clear liquids before surgery. For how long should clear liquids be avoided before the procedure?

  1. 1 hour
  2. 4 hours
  3. 2 hours ✓
  4. 8 hours

Why: The source states patients are typically advised to avoid food for at least 6 to 8 hours and clear liquids for 2 hours before the procedure. Failure to comply can result in surgery cancellation.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.3 Preoperative Nursing Care

A patient with short-term insomnia asks for advice on healthy sleep habits. Which instruction reflects the source's guidance?

  1. Avoid caffeine before bedtime, as its effect can last as long as eight hours ✓
  2. Drink alcohol before bed because it produces deep, restful sleep
  3. Take long afternoon naps every day in order to make up for the sleep that was lost during the night
  4. Exercise vigorously right before bedtime to promote tiredness

Why: The source advises avoiding caffeine, nicotine, and alcohol before bedtime, noting the effect of caffeine can last as long as eight hours. It also recommends avoiding daytime naps (especially in the afternoon) and getting regular physical activity at least 5 to 6 hours before bed, because alcohol triggers lighter sleep and exercising close to bedtime makes it harder to fall asleep.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 12.2 Sleep and Rest Basic Concepts

According to the source, supine (back) sleep decreases the risk of SIDS but increases the risk of which condition?

  1. Positional plagiocephaly ✓
  2. Neonatal sepsis
  3. Hyperbilirubinemia
  4. Brachial plexus palsy of the arm

Why: The source states supine sleep decreases SIDS but increases positional plagiocephaly (flat spots on the head from repeated pressure). Prevention includes tummy time and alternating crib direction.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 12.3 Common Complications During the Neonatal Period

A child returns to the unit after a tonsillectomy and is not fully awake. According to the source, in which position should the nurse place the child?

  1. Supine with head flat
  2. Prone or side-lying ✓
  3. High Fowler's
  4. Trendelenburg

Why: The source states that post-operatively the patient should be positioned prone or side-lying to prevent aspiration of blood or saliva, and suction equipment should be kept at the bedside.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 15.7 Pharyngitis, Tonsillitis, & Adenoiditis

A patient's primary language is not English, and a family member offers to interpret the health history. According to the source, what should the nurse do?

  1. Obtain a medical translator before initiating the health history ✓
  2. Allow the family member to interpret in order to save time
  3. Proceed using only hand gestures and simple written English words
  4. Postpone the entire health history until the patient learns English

Why: The source directs the nurse to obtain a medical translator prior to initiating the health history when the patient's primary language is not English. A family member or care partner should not interpret, because the patient may not want them aware of health problems and they may not use correct medical terminology, causing miscommunication.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 2.2 Health History Basic Concepts

According to the source, which virus is the leading cause of diarrhea?

  1. Norovirus ✓
  2. Rotavirus
  3. Adenovirus
  4. Astrovirus

Why: The source states diarrhea often has a viral cause with norovirus being the leading culprit, though rotavirus and other pathogens are also common in daycare centers.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.9 Diarrhea

A child has swallowed a poisonous substance. According to the source, which action is correct?

  1. Spit out what has not been swallowed, but do not induce vomiting ✓
  2. Induce vomiting right away to remove the swallowed substance
  3. Give the child large amounts of milk to drink
  4. Wait several hours before taking any action

Why: The source states that when a poisonous substance is taken by mouth, whatever has not been swallowed should be spit out, but vomiting should NOT be induced. The patient or caregiver should call poison control or 911.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.22 Other Pediatric Disorders

According to the source, how do blood volume and cardiac output change during a normal pregnancy?

  1. They increase by 30-45% above nonpregnant levels ✓
  2. They decrease by 30-45% below nonpregnant levels
  3. They remain unchanged from nonpregnant levels
  4. They increase by 10-15% above nonpregnant levels

Why: The source states that throughout pregnancy, blood volume and cardiac output increase by 30-45% above nonpregnant levels. The heart rate increases about 10-15 beats per minute, but that value refers to heart rate, not blood volume.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.4 Changes During Pregnancy

To prove malpractice (professional negligence) in court, four elements must be proven. Which option lists these four elements as given in the source?

  1. Assault, Battery, False imprisonment, and Fraud
  2. Plan, Do, Study, and Act
  3. Autonomy, Beneficence, Justice, and Fidelity
  4. Duty, Breach, Cause (causation), and Harm (damages) ✓

Why: The source states malpractice is professional negligence with four elements, all of which must be proven: Duty (a nurse-patient relationship exists), Breach (the standard of care was not met), Cause (the breach caused the injury), and Harm (the injury resulted in damages).

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Legal Implications

A new mother struggles to cope with the major life changes after the birth of her baby. According to the source's categories of crises, this is an example of which type?

  1. Situational crisis
  2. Adventitious crisis
  3. Social crisis from a man-made disaster
  4. Maturational (developmental) crisis ✓

Why: The source categorizes the birth of a baby as a maturational (developmental) crisis, which results from normal processes of growth and development and commonly occurs at specific developmental periods such as birth, adolescence, marriage, and death.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 3.5 Crisis and Crisis Intervention

According to the source, research suggests the LGBTQ population experiences health disparities linked to which of the following?

  1. Excess and readily available access to affirming health care
  2. A complete absence of any mental health needs in the population
  3. Societal stigma, discrimination, and denial of civil rights ✓
  4. Higher rates of stable employer-provided health insurance coverage

Why: The source states research suggests LGBTQ individuals experience health disparities linked to societal stigma, discrimination, and denial of their civil rights, with high rates of mental health disorders, substance misuse, suicide, and experiences of violence and victimization.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations

A caregiver asks how to remove the scales of cradle cap. According to the source, which method is recommended?

  1. Scrub the scalp vigorously with a stiff-bristled brush
  2. Apply an emollient overnight, then rub with a soft brush ✓
  3. Peel the crusts off the scalp by hand
  4. Apply rubbing alcohol directly to the scalp

Why: The source states scales caused by cradle cap can be removed by applying an emollient such as baby oil, letting it sit overnight, and then rubbing the area with a soft brush.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.8 Dermatitis

According to the source, what remains the gold standard for definitive diagnosis of endometriosis?

  1. Pelvic ultrasound imaging performed on its own
  2. A serum CA-125 tumor marker blood test alone
  3. Laparoscopic surgery with direct visualization and biopsy ✓
  4. Transvaginal ultrasound performed with color Doppler flow

Why: The source states that while pelvic ultrasound and MRI may visualize pelvic anatomy, laparoscopic surgery with direct visualization and biopsy of endometrial implants remains the gold standard for definitive diagnosis of endometriosis.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 18.10 Endometriosis

A community health nurse is caring for rural residents. According to the source, which of the following is a rural risk factor for health disparities?

  1. An excess availability of specialist physicians in the local area
  2. Very high rates of employer-provided commercial health insurance
  3. Geographic isolation and limited access to health care specialists ✓
  4. An abundance of convenient public transportation options for all

Why: The source states rural risk factors for health disparities include geographic isolation, lower socioeconomic status, higher rates of health risk behaviors, limited access to health care specialists, and limited job opportunities, intensified by lower rates of insurance coverage.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations

A patient with severe preeclampsia is started on magnesium sulfate. According to the source, what is its primary purpose?

  1. To lower blood pressure as the main antihypertensive
  2. To induce uterine contractions and speed delivery
  3. To increase the maternal platelet count
  4. To prevent or control seizures (eclampsia) ✓

Why: The source states magnesium sulfate is approved to prevent or control seizures (eclampsia) in patients with preeclampsia and is a CNS depressant. Antihypertensives such as labetalol, hydralazine, or nifedipine are used to lower blood pressure.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.5 Hypertensive Disorders of Pregnancy

A newborn with fetal alcohol syndrome becomes easily agitated. According to the source, which nursing approach is appropriate?

  1. Provide frequent bright stimulation to promote alertness
  2. Prevent overstimulation with a calm environment and clustered cares ✓
  3. Keep the infant in a brightly lit, active nursery
  4. Feed the infant only on a rigid, interrupted schedule

Why: The source states nursing management of FAS includes preventing overstimulation because these newborns become easily agitated with difficulty self-soothing; maintaining a calm environment and clustering cares help reduce physical stimulation.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.8 Exposure to Maternal Substance Use

Expected outcome statements should contain five components remembered by the SMART mnemonic. What does SMART stand for?

  1. Standardized, Manageable, Accurate, Reviewed, Tested
  2. Specific, Measurable, Attainable/Action-oriented, Relevant/Realistic, Timeframe ✓
  3. Simple, Meaningful, Achievable, Recorded, and Timed for each nursing diagnosis
  4. Subjective, Modifiable, Approved, Reasonable, Tracked

Why: The source states outcome statements should be Specific, Measurable, Attainable/Action-oriented, Relevant/Realistic, and Time-limited (Timeframe), remembered by the SMART mnemonic. Outcomes must be patient-centered and begin with 'The patient will.'

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 4.5 Outcome Identification

Three days after delivery, a new mother reports tearfulness, mild irritability, and feeling overwhelmed, but is still able to care for herself and her baby. According to the source, this is most consistent with which condition?

  1. Postpartum depression
  2. Baby blues ✓
  3. Postpartum psychosis
  4. Persistent depressive disorder

Why: The source describes the baby blues as affecting up to 70% of women, beginning within a few days of delivery with emotional lability, tearfulness, mild irritability, and feeling overwhelmed. These are usually mild, self-limited, and resolve within about two weeks.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 7.3 Types of Depression

According to the source, what is always the priority concern for a person with a mental health condition who is in crisis?

  1. Risk of suicide ✓
  2. Risk of financial loss
  3. Loss of employment
  4. Disruption of daily routine

Why: The source states that risk of suicide is always a priority concern for people with mental health conditions in crisis, any talk of suicide should always be taken seriously, and encouraging someone with suicidal thoughts to get help is a safety priority.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 3.5 Crisis and Crisis Intervention