Lantern Prep

DOH Abu Dhabi RN Exam (ex-HAAD), Practice Questions

Practice for the DOH Abu Dhabi (formerly HAAD) registered-nurse exam: original four-option questions built on the shared Gulf nursing core (the public SCFHS SNLE blueprint), with source-cited rationales.
Content last updated 6 July 2026 · every question independently verified against its cited source

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Lantern Prep is an independent study aid. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by SCFHS, DHA, DOH Abu Dhabi, MOHAP, QCHP, Prometric, or any regulator or testing provider. Regulator and provider names are used only to identify the exams candidates prepare for. All questions are original, written to the public SCFHS SNLE blueprint and open nursing references; no recalled, leaked, or actual exam content, ever. Educational study aid only, not medical advice or clinical guidance. Practice standards evolve and local policies differ; always follow your institution’s current protocols and the regulator’s official materials.

Frequently asked questions

How is the DOH Abu Dhabi RN Exam (ex-HAAD) structured?

The exam is approximately 150 MCQs, four-option single best answer (DOH publishes exact format to applicants). Question domains follow the shared Gulf nursing core: Nursing Fundamentals, Adult (medical-surgical, critical care, community, mental health) Nursing, Maternal-Child Nursing, and Nursing Management — the structure published in the SCFHS SNLE blueprint. Always confirm current format details in your official applicant materials.

What score do I need to pass?

DOH Abu Dhabi does not publish a public pass mark. We score your practice against a 65% benchmark as a conservative readiness guide — confirm current requirements with DOH before your exam.

Are these real or recalled DOH Abu Dhabi exam questions?

No — and that matters. Selling ‘recalled’ or ‘actual’ exam questions violates the confidentiality agreement every candidate signs and can put your licence application at risk. Every Lantern Prep question is original, written to the public SCFHS SNLE blueprint and grounded in open, authoritative nursing references, with the source cited in every rationale.

How many practice questions are included?

The bank currently contains 1211 verified questions with source-cited rationales, distributed to the blueprint weighting (Fundamentals 20%, Adult 40%, Maternal-Child 30%, Management 10%). It is growing steadily — every question ships only after an independent verification pass against its cited source.

Does one purchase cover other Gulf regulators?

The core nursing content is shared across SCFHS, DHA, DOH Abu Dhabi, MOHAP, and QCHP — the exams test the same registered-nurse fundamentals. Each regulator page packages the bank to that exam’s length and timing.

What does access cost?

$29, one time, lifetime access. No subscription, no account needed.

Can I use it on more than one device?

Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices. Your progress is saved on each device.

Is Lantern Prep affiliated with DOH Abu Dhabi or Prometric?

No. Lantern Prep is an independent study aid and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by any regulator or testing provider.

Sample DOH Abu Dhabi RN Exam (ex-HAAD) practice questions

A selection of free questions with answers and source-cited rationales. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.

According to the source, a safety plan created with a patient at high risk for suicide is best described as which of the following?

  1. A legal contract in which the patient formally promises the team not to attempt suicide
  2. A prioritized written list of warning signs, coping strategies, and sources of support ✓
  3. A nursing schedule detailing the times of required one-to-one continuous observation
  4. A prescription list detailing all of the patient's current psychiatric medication doses

Why: The source defines a safety plan as a prioritized written list of warning signs, coping strategies, and sources of support that patients can use before or during a suicidal crisis. It should be brief, in the patient's own words, and easy to read.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 1.6 Establishing Safety

A nurse is planning services for migrant farmworkers. According to the source, which strategy supports health services for this population?

  1. Requiring workers to travel to a distant central hospital
  2. Providing materials only in complex medical terminology
  3. Eliminating translation services to reduce costs
  4. Mobile medical units and portable medical records ✓

Why: The source lists successful strategies to support migrant worker health including culturally sensitive health education, educational materials at appropriate literacy levels, portable medical records and case management, mobile medical units, transportation services, and translation services.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations

Leopold's maneuvers suggest the fetal spine is horizontal (transverse lie). According to the source, what does this mean for delivery?

  1. It is optimal for a rapid vaginal birth
  2. It is not compatible with vaginal birth ✓
  3. It always converts to breech in active labor
  4. It is the most common cephalic presentation

Why: The source states a transverse lie (fetal spine horizontal) is NOT compatible with vaginal birth and requires repositioning or cesarean birth. A longitudinal lie with the head down (cephalic) is optimal for vaginal birth.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 10.4 The P's of Labor

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According to the source, which of the following is an example of an isotonic IV solution?

  1. 0.45% normal saline
  2. 0.9% normal saline ✓
  3. 3% normal saline
  4. 5% dextrose in half saline

Why: The source lists 0.9% normal saline (0.9% NaCl) and lactated ringers as examples of isotonic solutions, which have a similar concentration of dissolved particles as blood so the fluid stays in the intravascular space.

Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 1.2 Basic Concepts of Venipuncture and Intravenous Therapy

A nurse prepares to catheterize a male patient with a known enlarged prostate that has made a previous catheterization difficult. Which catheter type does the source describe as designed to more easily navigate the male urethra in this situation?

  1. A coude catheter, which has a curved tip for navigating the male urethra with an enlarged prostate ✓
  2. A condom catheter, which is applied externally over the penis and attached to drainage tubing
  3. A suprapubic catheter, which is inserted through the abdominal wall directly into the bladder
  4. A three-way irrigation catheter, which has a large lumen used for continuous bladder irrigation

Why: The source describes the coude catheter tip as a curved tip used to more easily navigate the male urethra, especially with an enlarged prostate. The condom catheter is a non-invasive external device, the suprapubic is surgically placed through the abdominal wall, and the three-way is for irrigation.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 21.2 Basic Concepts (urinary elimination devices)

Before giving digoxin to an infant, a nurse auscultates the apical pulse for one full minute. According to the source, the dose should be withheld and the provider notified if the apical heart rate is below what value?

  1. Less than 60 beats per minute
  2. Less than 80 beats per minute
  3. Less than 120 beats per minute
  4. Less than 100 beats per minute ✓

Why: The source states that prior to digoxin administration the nurse auscultates the apical pulse for one minute, and the dose is withheld and the provider notified for an apical heart rate less than 100 beats per minute in infants.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 17.5 Applying the Nursing Process to Congenital Heart Defects

A nurse withdraws medication from a glass ampule. Which practice is correct according to the source?

  1. Draw glass fragments up with a standard needle to avoid waste
  2. Snap the ampule neck toward the hands to control the break
  3. Use the blunt fill filter needle to inject the medication into the patient
  4. Withdraw with a filter needle, then change it before injecting the patient ✓

Why: The source states medication is withdrawn from an ampule using a blunt fill filter needle to prevent glass particles being drawn up, but filter needles should never be used to inject the patient and must be removed and replaced with an appropriate needle. The ampule neck should be snapped away from the hands.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 18.2 Basic Concepts

A nurse teaches a patient how to self-administer sublingual nitroglycerin for angina. Which instruction reflects the dosing described in the source?

  1. Take two tablets at once and then repeat hourly
  2. Take one tablet every 5 minutes for a total of three doses ✓
  3. Take one tablet only and then do not repeat
  4. Take one tablet every 30 minutes until the pain resolves

Why: The source instructs patients to self-administer one tablet every five minutes for a total of three doses, with relief starting within one to two minutes. The other regimens do not match the source.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 5.7 Coronary Artery Disease

A nurse is arranging placement for a patient who needs 24-hour licensed nursing and total assistance with activities of daily living. Which level of care is most appropriate?

  1. Assisted living, offering housing, meals, and some ADL help
  2. Skilled nursing facility with 24-hour licensed nursing ✓
  3. Outpatient care for chronic disease maintenance
  4. Home health with intermittent nurse and aide visits

Why: The source describes a skilled nursing facility (nursing home / long-term care) as providing 24-hour licensed nursing for patients who may need total ADL assistance. Assisted living provides safe housing, meals, and assistance with medications and ADLs but not 24-hour licensed nursing.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Health Care Economics

Evidence supports bedside handoff reports. According to the source, what benefit do bedside handoff reports provide compared with other formats?

  1. They eliminate the need to protect patient confidentiality
  2. They remove the need for the oncoming nurse to assess the patient
  3. They increase patient safety and patient and nurse satisfaction ✓
  4. They allow the report to be delegated to assistive personnel

Why: The source states evidence strongly supports that bedside handoff reports increase patient safety, as well as patient and nurse satisfaction, by communicating current, accurate patient information in real time; patient privacy and confidentiality rules must still be kept in mind if others are present.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, Communicating With Health Care Team Members

A patient newly diagnosed with genital herpes asks the nurse about treatment. Which statement reflects the source's information?

  1. There is no cure, but antiviral medications can prevent or shorten outbreaks ✓
  2. A single course of antibiotics will fully cure the herpes virus infection
  3. The virus is completely cleared from the body once the lesions have healed
  4. Herpes cannot be transmitted to a partner during periods between outbreaks

Why: The source states there is no cure for herpes; antiviral medications can prevent or shorten outbreaks, and daily suppressive therapy can reduce transmission to partners. Once infected, the virus remains in the body even after symptoms are gone.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 8.8 Sexually Transmitted Infections

For preventing stomatitis in a patient receiving chemotherapy, the source recommends which oral care measure?

  1. Vigorous brushing with a firm-bristled toothbrush
  2. Gentle brushing with a soft toothbrush and rinsing ✓
  3. Rinsing frequently with an alcohol-based mouthwash
  4. Avoiding all oral hydration between meals

Why: The source states nursing interventions for preventing stomatitis include providing good oral hygiene such as gentle brushing with a soft toothbrush and regular rinsing with a nonalcoholic mouthwash, and encouraging adequate oral hydration.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 4.4 Applying the Nursing Process to Cancer Treatment

A patient requires immediate surgery to control active hemorrhage in order to preserve life. According to the source's classification of surgical urgency, this surgery is best described as which type?

  1. Elective surgery
  2. Urgent surgery
  3. Emergent surgery ✓
  4. Palliative surgery

Why: The source defines emergent surgeries as those performed immediately to preserve the patient's life, giving control of hemorrhage as an example. Urgent surgeries are done within 24 to 48 hours, and elective surgeries can be delayed without affecting outcomes.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.2 Basic Concepts Related to Surgery

A nurse notes bleeding on a postoperative surgical dressing. According to the source, what should the nurse do to allow follow-up assessment of the bleeding?

  1. Remove the whole dressing to inspect the wound edges directly
  2. Circle the drainage on the dressing with a permanent marker ✓
  3. Apply a tourniquet above the surgical site
  4. Elevate the surgical site above heart level

Why: The source states that if bleeding is present on a dressing, the nurse should circle the drainage in permanent marker for follow-up assessments. If excessive bleeding occurs, reinforce the dressing and notify the surgeon.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.5 Postoperative Nursing Care

The warning signs of acute compartment syndrome are known as the six P's. According to the source, which sign is typically the first?

  1. Pain disproportionate to the injury ✓
  2. Pallor of the affected extremity
  3. Paralysis of the affected limb
  4. Pulselessness felt distal to the injury

Why: The source states pain is typically the first sign of ACS, described as severe, unrelenting pain disproportionate to the injury and unresponsive to opioid administration.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 10.6 Fracture

According to the source, which of the following is an example of an adaptive emotion-focused coping strategy?

  1. Avoiding the stressful condition and the situation entirely
  2. Withdrawing completely from any stressful environment or place
  3. Engaging in mindfulness, meditation, or physical activity ✓
  4. Misusing alcohol or other substances to blunt the discomfort

Why: The source lists emotion-focused coping (an adaptive strategy) as including mindfulness, meditation, yoga, humor, spiritual pursuits, physical activity, breathing exercises, and social support. Avoidance, withdrawal, and substance misuse are listed as maladaptive responses.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 9.2 Basic Concepts

A patient is prescribed intravenous phenytoin for status epilepticus. The source states it must be given slowly with cardiac monitoring for what reason?

  1. Its tendency to cause severe and prolonged hypoglycemia
  2. Its incompatibility with 0.9% normal saline solution
  3. Its risk of causing acute kidney injury and oliguria
  4. Its effect on the myocardium and potential for arrhythmias ✓

Why: The source states IV phenytoin must be administered slowly because of its effect on the myocardium and potential for arrhythmia development, and the patient should be on cardiac monitoring. It also notes phenytoin is incompatible with IV dextrose.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 9.7 Seizures and Epilepsy

The source lists complications that can result from improper patient positioning during surgery. Which of the following is included?

  1. Malignant hyperthermia, severe acidosis, and dysrhythmias
  2. Aspiration pneumonia, hypoventilation, and airway collapse
  3. Wound dehiscence with evisceration of abdominal contents
  4. Nerve damage, pressure injuries, or musculoskeletal strain ✓

Why: The source states complications associated with positioning can include nerve damage, pressure injuries, or musculoskeletal strain. Padding and frequent assessments help prevent these.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.4 Intraoperative Nursing Care

According to the ANA as cited in the source, advocacy is best defined as which of the following?

  1. The investigation of health care services to prevent money being wasted on unnecessary care
  2. A civil wrong under private law that causes physical or emotional harm to the patient
  3. A reimbursement model that ties a hospital's payment to measured patient outcomes and safety
  4. The act or process of pleading for, supporting, or recommending a cause or course of action ✓

Why: The source cites the ANA definition of advocacy as the act or process of pleading for, supporting, or recommending a cause or course of action, and identifies it as an ANA Standard of Professional Performance.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Advocacy

The source identifies which finding as the most sensitive indication of malignant hyperthermia?

  1. An extremely elevated core body temperature above 111 F
  2. A rise in end-tidal CO2 with falling oxygen saturation ✓
  3. A sudden drop in the serum potassium level
  4. The onset of jaw and upper chest muscle rigidity

Why: The source states the most sensitive indication of malignant hyperthermia is an unexpected rise in the end-tidal carbon dioxide (ETCO2) level with a decrease in oxygen saturation. An extremely elevated body temperature is described as a late sign.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.2 Basic Concepts Related to Surgery

According to the source, hand, foot, and mouth disease is most commonly caused by which virus?

  1. Parvovirus B19
  2. Coxsackievirus A type 16 ✓
  3. Respiratory syncytial virus
  4. Rotavirus

Why: The source states most cases of hand, foot, and mouth disease are caused by Coxsackievirus A type 16, and it commonly affects pediatric patients under seven years of age.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.22 Other Pediatric Disorders

According to the source, respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) in the preterm infant is commonly caused by a lack of what substance?

  1. Brown fat
  2. Pulmonary surfactant ✓
  3. Meconium
  4. Bilirubin

Why: The source states RDS is commonly caused by a lack of pulmonary surfactant, which keeps the alveoli open and prevents them from collapsing during exhalation. RDS is common in infants born before 34 weeks of gestation.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.2 Preterm Birth

According to the source, tuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis and spreads by which route?

  1. Contact with contaminated food or drinking water sources
  2. Direct contact of the organism with the patient's intact skin
  3. Through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes ✓
  4. Through the bite of an infected mosquito or other insect vector

Why: The source states TB is a contagious bacterial infection that spreads through the air when an infected person coughs or sneezes, releasing small infectious droplets. It is not spread by food, water, intact skin contact, or insect vectors.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 6.9 Tuberculosis

A tracing shows decelerations that begin during the contraction with the nadir occurring after the peak. According to the source, what do these indicate?

  1. Benign fetal head compression
  2. Reassuring fetal well-being
  3. Umbilical cord compression only
  4. Fetal hypoxia (nonreassuring) ✓

Why: The source defines a late deceleration as one that begins during the contraction and continues after it, with the nadir after the peak, and states it is nonreassuring and indicates fetal hypoxia. Early decelerations from head compression are benign; variable decelerations reflect cord compression.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 10.5 Fetal Heart Rate Monitoring

An infant on digoxin is also receiving a diuretic. According to the source, which electrolyte imbalances lower the threshold for digoxin toxicity?

  1. Hypercalcemia and hypernatremia
  2. Hyperkalemia and hypermagnesemia
  3. Hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia ✓
  4. Hyponatremia and hyperchloremia

Why: The source states hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia cause a lower threshold for digoxin toxicity, so nurses must monitor potassium and magnesium levels, especially if the patient is concurrently receiving diuretics that can deplete electrolytes.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 17.5 Applying the Nursing Process to Congenital Heart Defects

The hospital accreditation body has issued a sentinel event alert on inadequate handoff communication. According to the source, inadequate handoffs have been linked to which harms?

  1. Budget shortfalls, staffing cutbacks, and reduced operating funds for the unit
  2. Wrong-site surgery, treatment delays, falls, and medication errors ✓
  3. Loss of the agency's accreditation and revocation of individual nursing licenses
  4. Increased reliance on mandatory overtime and floating nurses to other units

Why: The source states the hospital accreditation body issued a sentinel event alert on inadequate handoff communication, which has been linked to wrong-site surgery, treatment delays, falls, and medication errors.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Collaboration Within the Interprofessional Team

According to the source, at approximately what age does separation anxiety normally begin?

  1. At birth
  2. Around 2 years of age
  3. Around 4 years of age
  4. Around 8 months of age ✓

Why: The source states separation anxiety is a normal part of pediatric development that starts around eight months of age and usually resolves in toddlerhood.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 14.3 Effects of Illness and Hospitalization on a Pediatric Client and Family

A nurse is evaluating a patient's response after transfusing one unit of red blood cells. According to the source, by approximately how much can the hemoglobin be anticipated to increase per unit?

  1. 3 g/dL
  2. 5 g/dL
  3. 1 g/dL ✓
  4. 0.5 g/dL

Why: The source states that for each unit of RBCs transfused, the patient's hemoglobin level can be anticipated to increase by 1 g/dL. Nurses evaluate effectiveness by monitoring the hemoglobin level.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 3.5 Anemia

According to the source, which statement best distinguishes aseptic technique from sterile technique?

  1. Asepsis creates a protective barrier, while sterile technique attacks all microorganisms ✓
  2. Asepsis eliminates all microbes, while sterile technique only reduces their number
  3. Asepsis is used only in surgery, while sterile technique is used for all routine care
  4. There is no meaningful clinical difference between the two related terms

Why: The source states asepsis is creating a protective barrier from pathogens, whereas sterile technique (surgical asepsis) is a purposeful attack on microorganisms that seeks to eliminate every potential microorganism in and around a sterile field. Sterile technique is the standard for surgery, invasive wound management, and central line care.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 4.3 Aseptic Technique

According to the source, type 2 diabetes is characterized by which of the following?

  1. The immune system destroying the beta islet cells of the pancreas over time
  2. A complete absence of any insulin production from the moment of birth
  3. A pregnancy-related process that always resolves completely after the baby is born
  4. Cells becoming resistant to insulin and/or the pancreas not producing enough insulin ✓

Why: The source states that in type 2 diabetes the body's cells become resistant to the effects of insulin and/or the pancreas does not produce sufficient insulin. Autoimmune beta-cell destruction describes type 1 diabetes.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 7.5 Diabetes Mellitus