Lantern Prep

QCHP RN Exam (Qatar), Practice Questions

Practice for the QCHP (Qatar) registered-nurse qualifying examination: original four-option questions built on the shared Gulf nursing core — QCHP uses the same domain structure as the SCFHS SNLE blueprint — with source-cited rationales.
Content last updated 6 July 2026 · every question independently verified against its cited source

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Lantern Prep is an independent study aid. It is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by SCFHS, DHA, DOH Abu Dhabi, MOHAP, QCHP, Prometric, or any regulator or testing provider. Regulator and provider names are used only to identify the exams candidates prepare for. All questions are original, written to the public SCFHS SNLE blueprint and open nursing references; no recalled, leaked, or actual exam content, ever. Educational study aid only, not medical advice or clinical guidance. Practice standards evolve and local policies differ; always follow your institution’s current protocols and the regulator’s official materials.

Frequently asked questions

How is the QCHP RN Exam (Qatar) structured?

The exam is 150 MCQs in about 180 minutes (as commonly published for the QCHP nursing qualifying exam), four-option single best answer. Question domains follow the shared Gulf nursing core: Nursing Fundamentals, Adult (medical-surgical, critical care, community, mental health) Nursing, Maternal-Child Nursing, and Nursing Management — the structure published in the SCFHS SNLE blueprint. Always confirm current format details in your official applicant materials.

What score do I need to pass?

QCHP communicates the official pass mark to applicants. We score your practice against a 60% benchmark as a conservative readiness guide — confirm the current pass mark in your applicant materials.

Are these real or recalled QCHP exam questions?

No — and that matters. Selling ‘recalled’ or ‘actual’ exam questions violates the confidentiality agreement every candidate signs and can put your licence application at risk. Every Lantern Prep question is original, written to the public SCFHS SNLE blueprint and grounded in open, authoritative nursing references, with the source cited in every rationale.

How many practice questions are included?

The bank currently contains 1211 verified questions with source-cited rationales, distributed to the blueprint weighting (Fundamentals 20%, Adult 40%, Maternal-Child 30%, Management 10%). It is growing steadily — every question ships only after an independent verification pass against its cited source.

Does one purchase cover other Gulf regulators?

The core nursing content is shared across SCFHS, DHA, DOH Abu Dhabi, MOHAP, and QCHP — the exams test the same registered-nurse fundamentals. Each regulator page packages the bank to that exam’s length and timing.

What does access cost?

$29, one time, lifetime access. No subscription, no account needed.

Can I use it on more than one device?

Yes. One purchase works on up to 3 of your devices. Your progress is saved on each device.

Is Lantern Prep affiliated with QCHP or Prometric?

No. Lantern Prep is an independent study aid and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or approved by any regulator or testing provider.

What topics does the QCHP RN Exam (Qatar) question bank cover?

It is organised into 4 modules that follow the exam's own content areas: Nursing Fundamentals, Adult Nursing, Maternal-Child Nursing and Nursing Management and Leadership. Each module is drilled and scored separately, so you can see exactly which areas are exam-ready and which still need work.

When was this question bank last updated?

Last updated 6 July 2026. The bank is revised whenever the source material it cites changes, and every question carries the source its explanation is drawn from.

Sample QCHP RN Exam (Qatar) practice questions

A selection of free questions with answers and source-cited rationales. Use the interactive modules above for timed, scored drills.

A nurse reviews screening guidance for a sexually active woman who is 22 years old. According to the source, this patient should be tested annually for which infections?

  1. Syphilis and hepatitis C only
  2. Hepatitis B and HIV only
  3. Trichomoniasis and HPV
  4. Gonorrhea and chlamydia ✓

Why: The source cites screening guidance that all sexually active women younger than age 25 (as well as women with new or multiple partners or whose partners have an STI) should be tested for gonorrhea and chlamydia annually.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 8.5 Reproductive Screening

A patient taking lithium asks the nurse about pain relief options. According to the source, which type of medication is NOT recommended because it increases lithium levels?

  1. Acetaminophen
  2. Topical lidocaine
  3. Oral antihistamines
  4. NSAIDs ✓

Why: The source states that NSAIDs are not recommended for patients taking lithium because they increase lithium levels, which raises the risk of toxicity.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 6.4 Mood Stabilizer - Lithium

According to the source, before receiving a first dose of buprenorphine for opioid withdrawal, the patient must be in what state to avoid worsening symptoms?

  1. Fully abstinent from all opioids for a period of at least one week
  2. A state of mild to moderate withdrawal (COWS score greater than 10) ✓
  3. Acutely intoxicated with a recent large dose of opioids in their system
  4. Experiencing severe respiratory depression with a very slow breathing rate

Why: The source states buprenorphine can worsen opioid withdrawal if not administered carefully, so the patient must be in a state of mild to moderate withdrawal (COWS score greater than 10) before receiving their first dose, which is typically 2 to 4 mg sublingually.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 14.3 Withdrawal Management/Detoxification

Show more sample questions with answers & rationales

According to the source's Aseptic Non-Touch Technique (ANTT), a 'key part' refers to:

  1. Any sterile equipment part such as needle hubs, syringe tips, and dressings ✓
  2. Any nonintact skin, potential insertion site, or vascular access site
  3. The patient's paper medical record and the provider's written orders
  4. The unlicensed assistive personnel who is helping with the procedure

Why: The source defines a key part as any sterile part of equipment used during an aseptic procedure, such as needle hubs, syringe tips, needles, and dressings. A key site, by contrast, is any nonintact skin, potential insertion site, or access site for medical devices.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 4.3 Aseptic Technique

A nurse prepares to administer an IV fluid containing potassium. According to the source, why must the correct infusion rate be maintained?

  1. Rapid infusion may quickly cause cerebral edema
  2. Slow infusion may cause an air embolism
  3. Rapid infusion may cause sudden cardiac arrest ✓
  4. Slow infusion may cause phlebitis

Why: The source states electrolytes administered via the IV route must always be given cautiously at the correct rate because over supplementation can be deadly; for example, potassium infused too rapidly can cause sudden cardiac arrest.

Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 1.2 Basic Concepts of Venipuncture and Intravenous Therapy

Using the CURE hierarchy, a nurse has two competing needs. Which should be addressed first?

  1. Assisting a weak patient who is on a bed alarm to walk to the restroom safely
  2. Documenting a completed routine physical assessment
  3. A patient with a rapid fluttering heartbeat and shortness of breath ✓
  4. Washing a patient's hair to improve their comfort

Why: The source gives this exact example: a critical need (rapid fluttering heartbeat plus shortness of breath) takes priority over an urgent need (assisting a weak patient on a bed alarm to the restroom). Critical needs require immediate action and never fall below urgent, routine, or extra activities.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Prioritization

A nurse wants to post about an interesting patient case on social media without using the patient's name. According to the source, what is the appropriate action?

  1. Post the case anyway because no patient name or identifier is being used in it
  2. Post it only within a private social media group, which is always fully secure
  3. Post photos of the patient as long as the patient's face is hidden from view
  4. Never post information related to patients or the facility on social media ✓

Why: The source states information related to patients, patient care, or health care agencies should never be posted on social media; nurses have been fired for such violations, and even private-group posts can become public. Nurses must not post photos or videos of patients.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, Legal and Ethical Considerations

A nurse selects an intramuscular injection site for an adult. Which site does the source identify as preferred, and why?

  1. The vastus lateralis, because it is preferred for adults over infants
  2. The ventrogluteal site, because it has the greatest muscle thickness and few nerves and vessels ✓
  3. The deltoid site, because it is the largest and most developed muscle available in the arm
  4. The dorsogluteal site, because it lies safely away from all major nerves and blood vessels

Why: The source states the ventrogluteal site is preferred in adults because it has the greatest muscle thickness, is free of nerves and blood vessels, and has a small fat layer, giving less painful administration and optimal absorption. The vastus lateralis is preferred for infants, and the deltoid is recommended for vaccinations.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 18.3 Evidence-Based Practices for Injections

A nurse is floated to an unfamiliar unit and is given an assignment that clearly exceeds their skill set and orientation. According to professional nursing guidance in the source, what is the nurse's obligation?

  1. Refuse the assignment because nurses have an obligation to refuse unsafe assignments ✓
  2. Accept the unsafe assignment anyway, because floating to another unit is required under any condition
  3. Delegate the entire assignment to available assistive personnel
  4. Leave the facility immediately without notifying anyone

Why: The source states that when floating, the nurse remains accountable under the nursing scope-of-practice regulations and should ensure the assignment fits their skill set and receive orientation; per professional nursing guidance, nurses have an OBLIGATION to refuse an unsafe assignment.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Health Care Economics

A new mother struggles to cope with the major life changes after the birth of her baby. According to the source's categories of crises, this is an example of which type?

  1. Situational crisis
  2. Adventitious crisis
  3. Social crisis from a man-made disaster
  4. Maturational (developmental) crisis ✓

Why: The source categorizes the birth of a baby as a maturational (developmental) crisis, which results from normal processes of growth and development and commonly occurs at specific developmental periods such as birth, adolescence, marriage, and death.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 3.5 Crisis and Crisis Intervention

A protein found in heart muscle cells that is released into the bloodstream when heart tissue dies and helps diagnose myocardial infarction is:

  1. Brain natriuretic peptide
  2. D-dimer
  3. Serum creatinine
  4. Troponin ✓

Why: The source identifies troponin as a protein released when heart tissue dies, used to help diagnose myocardial infarction. BNP relates to heart failure, D-dimer to clot breakdown, and creatinine to kidney function.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 5.7 Coronary Artery Disease

A nurse manager is discussing time scarcity with staff. Which statement accurately reflects how the source describes time scarcity?

  1. It is a formal acuity-rating staffing tool used to balance total workload equitably among nurses
  2. It is the process of delegating tasks to assistive personnel
  3. It is the review of services to prevent wasted resources
  4. It is the feeling of racing against a clock and can impair patient safety ✓

Why: The source describes time scarcity as the feeling of racing against a clock that continually works against the nurse, causing frustration, inadequacy, and burnout, and impairing patient safety through adverse events and increased mortality. Frameworks provide structure so critical interventions are safely implemented first.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Prioritization

A nurse reviews the drug schedule classification system. According to the source, which statement correctly contrasts Schedule I and Schedule V substances?

  1. Schedule V has high abuse potential; Schedule I the least potential
  2. Schedule I has the least abuse potential; Schedule V the greatest
  3. Schedule I has high abuse potential; Schedule V the least potential ✓
  4. Schedule I and Schedule V both have no accepted medical use

Why: The source states Schedule I drugs have a high potential for abuse and severe dependence, whereas Schedule V drugs represent the least potential for abuse. Only Schedule I is described as having no currently accepted medical use, so the options reversing or equating the two schedules are incorrect.

Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 2.3 Legal Foundations and National Guidelines

According to the source, which medication is the first-line drug for anaphylaxis?

  1. Diphenhydramine
  2. Epinephrine ✓
  3. Albuterol
  4. A corticosteroid

Why: The source states epinephrine (1:1000) is administered as the first-line drug for anaphylaxis. It helps counteract the severe effects by increasing heart rate, improving breathing, and reducing blood vessel dilation.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 4.5 Autoimmune and Hypersensitivity Reactions

A patient with an NG feeding tube develops respiratory symptoms suggesting possible aspiration. According to the source, what is the appropriate action?

  1. Continue the feeding at a slower rate and keep watching
  2. Withhold feedings and notify the provider until placement is verified ✓
  3. Raise the head of the bed higher and continue the feeding
  4. Flush the tube with sterile water and observe the response closely

Why: The source states that if the patient develops respiratory symptoms indicating potential aspiration, the nurse should immediately notify the provider and withhold enteral feedings and medications until placement is verified.

Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 5.2 Basic Concepts

A patient asks the nurse to explain a living will. According to the source, a living will does which of the following?

  1. Names a person to make health care decisions if the patient is incapacitated
  2. Specifies which treatments the patient wishes to receive or refuse if incapacitated ✓
  3. Transfers the patient's financial assets to a chosen agent
  4. Legally declares the patient competent for court proceedings

Why: The source defines a living will as an advance directive that specifies which treatments to receive or refuse if incapacitated (for example CPR, mechanical ventilation, tube feeding), typically effective only when specific medical criteria are met. Naming a decision-maker is a durable power of attorney for health care.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Legal Implications

According to the source, vascular access for hemodialysis is typically established through which of the following?

  1. A large-bore peripheral IV catheter inserted into the patient's hand
  2. A peritoneal dialysis catheter surgically placed into the abdomen
  3. A surgically created arteriovenous fistula, graft, or central venous catheter ✓
  4. An indwelling urinary catheter placed to drain urine from the patient's bladder

Why: The source states hemodialysis vascular access is typically established through a surgically created arteriovenous fistula, arteriovenous graft, or central venous catheter, and these access sites are only used for dialysis. A peritoneal catheter is used for peritoneal dialysis.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 8.5 Acute Renal Failure

A nurse assigns personal hygiene and ambulation for several patients to a UAP. Who retains overall accountability for these patients' care?

  1. The registered nurse who made the assignment ✓
  2. The unit-assigned assistive personnel who performs the tasks
  3. The patient's admitting physician or provider
  4. The nurse leader who wrote the delegation policy

Why: The source states the RN remains accountable for the patient's care despite assignments made to others, and the licensed nurse retains overall accountability for patient care when delegating. Accountability means being answerable for one's choices, decisions, and actions.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Delegation and Supervision

A patient with influenza (a viral infection) requests an antibiotic. Based on the source, what is true about antibiotics for this patient?

  1. Antibiotics will effectively shorten the overall duration and severity of the patient's viral influenza illness
  2. Antibiotics are the first-line treatment for all respiratory illnesses
  3. Antibiotics should be prescribed to prevent the virus from spreading
  4. Antibiotics do not work against viral infections such as colds or influenza ✓

Why: The source states antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections and do not work against viral infections such as colds or influenza. Overprescription of antibiotics for nonbacterial infections is a factor in antibiotic resistance; the nurse educates the patient about effective treatment for the type of pathogen.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 9.5 Treating Infection

A patient being treated for a DVT suddenly develops difficulty breathing, tachycardia, chest pain that worsens with a deep breath, and sudden anxiety. Based on the source, the nurse should recognize these as signs of which complication?

  1. A resolving deep vein thrombosis
  2. A pulmonary embolism ✓
  3. A hypertensive crisis
  4. Left-sided heart failure

Why: The source lists sudden dyspnea, tachycardia, pleuritic chest pain, hemoptysis, hypotension, and sudden anxiety as signs of pulmonary embolism, an emergency complication of DVT. These do not indicate resolution of the DVT.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 5.11 Deep Vein Thrombosis

A nurse cares for a patient with suspected acute myocardial infarction. According to the source, supplemental oxygen should be administered when the SpO2 is below which value or per agency protocol?

  1. Less than 92 percent ✓
  2. Less than 88 percent
  3. Less than 90 percent
  4. Less than 95 percent

Why: The source lists administering oxygen if SpO2 is less than 92% or per agency protocol to help ensure adequate oxygen to the heart tissue. The other thresholds are not the value stated.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 5.7 Coronary Artery Disease

According to the source, all patients of which age group admitted for acute health care should be screened for suicidal ideation with a validated tool?

  1. Aged 18 and older
  2. Aged 21 and older
  3. Aged 65 and older
  4. Aged 12 and older ✓

Why: The source states that all patients aged 12 and older admitted for acute health care should be screened for suicidal ideation with a validated tool, such as the Patient Safety Screener, because coexisting mental health issues can cause suicidal ideation.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 1.6 Establishing Safety

When infusing a hypotonic IV solution such as 0.45% normal saline, the source warns that too much fluid shifting out of the intravascular space can cause which complication?

  1. Cerebral edema ✓
  2. Hyperkalemia
  3. Metabolic alkalosis
  4. Deep vein thrombosis

Why: The source states hypotonic solutions cause osmotic movement of water into cells, and if too much fluid moves out of the intravascular compartment, cerebral edema can occur, as well as worsening hypovolemia and hypotension.

Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 1.2 Basic Concepts of Venipuncture and Intravenous Therapy

A patient receiving chemotherapy experiences hair loss. According to the source, this occurs because chemotherapy has cytotoxic effects on which cells?

  1. Only the cancerous cells within the primary tumor
  2. Only rapidly dividing cells in the digestive tract
  3. All rapidly dividing cells, including hair follicles ✓
  4. Only the blood-forming cells within the bone marrow

Why: The source states chemotherapy has cytotoxic effects, impacting all cells that are rapidly dividing. This is important for killing cancer cells but also impacts other rapidly dividing cells, such as those in hair follicles, which is why many patients experience hair loss.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 4.3 Cancer

Per the source, metformin is used in the treatment of PCOS primarily because it does what?

  1. It directly removes the multiple follicular cysts from the ovaries
  2. Improves cellular sensitivity to insulin and may restore ovulation ✓
  3. It blocks androgen receptors in the skin to reduce hirsutism and acne
  4. It replaces the estrogen and progesterone hormones the ovaries lack

Why: The source states metformin, a biguanide, can improve cellular sensitivity to insulin and may help restore ovulation in women with abnormal menstrual cycles. Spironolactone is listed separately as the agent used to reduce hyperandrogenism symptoms.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 18.18 Polycystic Ovary Syndrome

A nurse uses the CURE hierarchy to organize care during a shift. What do the letters in CURE stand for?

  1. Critical, Urgent, Routine, Extras ✓
  2. Circulation, Urgency, Risk, Evaluation
  3. Clinical, Unstable, Recovery, Emergent
  4. Care, Understanding, Respect, Empathy

Why: The source states CURE expands the ABCs for novice nurses and stands for Critical, Urgent, Routine, Extras. Critical needs require immediate action, urgent needs cause discomfort or safety risk, routine is typical daily care, and extras are non-essential comfort activities.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Prioritization

The nurse is planning milieu activities for a patient experiencing acute psychosis. According to the source, which type of activity should be AVOIDED?

  1. Structured activities
  2. Competitive activities ✓
  3. Physical exercise
  4. Group therapy for socialization

Why: The source states that structured activities provide security and focus and physical exercise can decrease tension, but competitive activities should be avoided because they may be too stimulating and can cause escalation of anxiety and agitation.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 11.4 Applying the Nursing Process to Schizophrenia

A nurse calculates a patient's BMI as 27.5. According to the interpretation ranges in the source, how is this value classified?

  1. Desirable range
  2. Underweight
  3. Overweight ✓
  4. Obese

Why: The source interprets BMI 25-29.9 as overweight. A value under 18.5 is underweight, 18.5-24.9 is the desirable range, and 30 or greater is obese, so 27.5 falls in the overweight category.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 14.3 Applying the Nursing Process

A child returns to the unit after a tonsillectomy and is not fully awake. According to the source, in which position should the nurse place the child?

  1. Supine with head flat
  2. Prone or side-lying ✓
  3. High Fowler's
  4. Trendelenburg

Why: The source states that post-operatively the patient should be positioned prone or side-lying to prevent aspiration of blood or saliva, and suction equipment should be kept at the bedside.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 15.7 Pharyngitis, Tonsillitis, & Adenoiditis

According to the source, hepatitis is considered chronic when the inflammation lasts for what duration?

  1. Over two weeks
  2. Over six months ✓
  3. Over one month
  4. Over three months

Why: The source states that when hepatitis lasts six months or less it is considered acute, and when it lasts over six months it is considered chronic.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 11.15 Hepatitis

A patient reports chest pressure that reliably occurs when climbing stairs and resolves within five minutes of rest or nitroglycerin. Based on the source, this is characteristic of which condition?

  1. Unstable angina
  2. Stable angina ✓
  3. Acute myocardial infarction
  4. Pulseless electrical activity

Why: The source describes stable angina as chronic, predictable, exertion-triggered, and relieved within five minutes of rest or nitroglycerin. Unstable angina occurs at rest, lasts longer, and is not fully relieved by rest or nitroglycerin.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 5.7 Coronary Artery Disease

According to the source, a patient is typically diagnosed with constipation when they have how many bowel movements?

  1. Less than one bowel movement per day
  2. Less than three bowel movements per week ✓
  3. Less than five bowel movements per week
  4. Fewer than three bowel movements per day

Why: The source states a patient is typically diagnosed with constipation if they have less than three bowel movements per week. Constipation can result from slowed peristalsis, dehydration, lack of fiber, opioids, or abdominal surgery; the goal of treatment is a bowel movement at least every 72 hours.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 16.6 Constipation

A newborn is receiving phototherapy for hyperbilirubinemia. According to the source, which nursing measure is required during treatment?

  1. Dressing the infant fully in a warm gown throughout
  2. Protecting the eyes with patches or a mask ✓
  3. Withholding all feedings during treatment
  4. Applying lotion to the exposed skin

Why: The source states that during phototherapy the infant wears only a diaper, the eyes are protected with patches or a mask, and temperature is monitored. Phototherapy works by photooxidation of bilirubin.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 12.3 Common Complications During the Neonatal Period

According to the source, what are the six rights of medication administration that must be verified before administering a medication?

  1. Right patient, drug, dose, provider, pharmacy, and cost
  2. Right patient, diagnosis, dose, time, route, and refusal
  3. Right drug, dose, allergy, history, education, and refusal
  4. Right patient, drug, dose, time, route, and documentation ✓

Why: The source lists the six rights of medication administration as Right Patient, Right Drug, Right Dose, Right Time, Right Route, and Right Documentation. These must be verified by the nurse at least three times before administering a medication; additional rights (history/assessment, drug interactions, refusal, education) extend the list up to ten.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills, 15.2 Basic Concepts of Administering Medications

A nurse describes accreditation to a colleague. Which statement accurately reflects accreditation as defined in the source?

  1. A national law that requires health care facilities to inform every patient of their advance-directive rights
  2. A civil wrong that causes harm to a patient
  3. A staffing model assigning patients based on illness severity
  4. A review process determining whether an agency meets an accrediting body's quality standards ✓

Why: The source defines accreditation as a review process determining whether an agency meets an accrediting body's quality standards, with main bodies including the hospital accreditation body (e.g., Joint Commission International, which accredits many Gulf hospitals).

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Quality and Evidence-Based Practice

A child presents with bruises in the shape of a belt, burns in the shape of a cigarette, and fractures that do not fit the reported story. According to the source, these findings most strongly suggest which of the following?

  1. Accidental play injuries
  2. Physical abuse ✓
  3. Neglect
  4. A normal childhood illness

Why: The source lists signs of physical abuse including injuries in the shape of an object such as a belt or cord, unexplained burns in the shape of an object such as a cigarette, and fractures that do not fit the story of how an injury occurred.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 15.4 Abuse and Neglect

The source describes linea nigra as which of the following?

  1. Reddish stretch marks appearing across the abdomen, breasts, and buttocks as the skin stretches
  2. Hyperpigmentation across the face extending from the cheekbones up to the forehead
  3. A vertical line of increased pigmentation from the pubic hairline to the xiphoid process ✓
  4. A benign, intensely itchy rash that begins on or near striae on the abdominal wall

Why: The source defines linea nigra as a vertical line of increased pigmentation that starts at the pubic hairline, passes through the umbilicus, and goes up to the xiphoid process. Melasma is the facial 'mask of pregnancy'; striae gravidarum are stretch marks; and the rash near striae is PUPPP.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.4 Changes During Pregnancy

The source states the enlarging uterus places pressure on the vena cava beginning around which gestational age, prompting the nurse to teach lateral resting positions?

  1. Around 16 weeks of gestation
  2. Around 20 weeks of gestation
  3. Around 28 weeks of gestation ✓
  4. Around 36 weeks of gestation

Why: The source states the enlarging uterus places pressure on the vena cava starting around 28 weeks of gestation, producing vena cava syndrome (dizziness, weakness, nausea when supine). Patients are taught to rest in a lateral position rather than flat on the back once they reach 28 weeks.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.5 Common Discomforts of Pregnancy

According to the source, thrombocytopenia is characterized by a decreased number of which blood component?

  1. Red blood cells
  2. Platelets ✓
  3. White blood cells
  4. Plasma proteins

Why: The source defines thrombocytopenia as a decreased number of platelets in the blood, which may occur due to factors affecting platelet production, destruction, or utilization.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 3.10 Thrombocytopenia

During NG tube insertion, the patient begins coughing, and pulse oximetry readings decrease with cyanosis. According to the source, what should the nurse do?

  1. Advance the tube much more quickly past the airway
  2. Ask the patient to swallow water and continue
  3. Apply suction to the tube to clear it
  4. Withdraw the tube until normal breathing resumes ✓

Why: The source states the nurse should monitor for signs of incorrect placement such as coughing, decreased pulse oximetry, and cyanosis; if these occur, the tube should immediately be withdrawn until normal breathing resumes.

Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 5.2 Basic Concepts

A patient reports taking several herbal supplements. Which statement about herbals and supplements is supported by the source?

  1. They are guaranteed free of any risk of adverse effects or overdose
  2. They are not regulated as medicines and may not contain the labeled ingredients ✓
  3. They are regulated as medicines and rigorously tested for public safety before reaching store shelves
  4. They cannot interact with prescription medications a patient is taking

Why: The source states herbal and supplement substances are not regulated as medicines by the national drug regulatory authority and most have not undergone rigorous scientific testing, so there is no guarantee they contain the labeled ingredients. There is a potential for adverse effects or overdose, especially if the supplement contains the same drug as a prescription.

Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 1.8 Medication Types

A fetus has been diagnosed with an omphalocele on prenatal ultrasound. According to the source, how is a fetus with omphalocele typically delivered, and why?

  1. Delivered vaginally, because the sac fully protects the organs
  2. Delivered by forceps-assisted delivery to speed the birth
  3. Delivered by water birth to reduce the abdominal pressure
  4. Delivered by cesarean section, due to risk for sac rupture ✓

Why: The source states a fetus with omphalocele is typically delivered by cesarean section due to risk for sac rupture. In omphalocele the organs protrude through the umbilicus covered in a thin, nearly transparent sac that usually is intact at birth.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.6 Congenital and Genetic Disorders

A patient in the operating room develops malignant hyperthermia. Which medication should the team be prepared to administer as the drug of choice?

  1. Succinylcholine agent
  2. Propofol
  3. Naloxone
  4. Dantrolene sodium ✓

Why: The source states the entire surgical team must be prepared to administer dantrolene sodium, a skeletal muscle relaxant, which is considered the drug of choice for treating malignant hyperthermia. Immediate action is essential for survival.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.2 Basic Concepts Related to Surgery

A patient taking a second-generation antipsychotic is being monitored for adverse effects. According to the source, second-generation antipsychotics are particularly associated with which risk?

  1. Frequent extrapyramidal side effects
  2. Tardive dyskinesia in most patients
  3. Immediate acute dystonic reactions
  4. Weight gain and development of metabolic syndrome ✓

Why: The source states second-generation antipsychotics have a significantly decreased risk of extrapyramidal side effects but are associated with weight gain and the development of metabolic syndrome. Weight, glucose, and lipids should be monitored before treatment and annually.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 11.3 Schizophrenia

According to the source, who or what is considered the PRIMARY source of subjective data during a health history?

  1. The patient's medical chart
  2. Family members and care partners
  3. The patient ✓
  4. Other health care team members

Why: The source states the patient is the primary source of subjective data. Secondary sources include the patient's chart, family members, or other health care team members. If data is gathered from someone other than the patient, the nurse should document where the information was obtained.

Source: Open RN Nursing Skills 2e, 2.2 Health History Basic Concepts

A patient with acute methamphetamine intoxication develops severe agitation and hyperthermia. According to the source, which intervention should be AVOIDED?

  1. Intravenous benzodiazepines
  2. Physical restraints ✓
  3. External cooling blankets
  4. Airway management

Why: The source states physical restraints should be avoided because patients who physically struggle against restraints undergo isometric muscle contractions associated with lactic acidosis, hyperthermia, sudden cardiac collapse, and death. IV benzodiazepines and cooling are used instead.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 14.2 Substances: Use, Intoxication, and Overdose

A nurse needs to assess pain in a patient with advanced dementia who cannot verbally report pain. According to the source, which tool is most appropriate?

  1. The numeric 0-to-10 verbal pain rating scale
  2. The Pain Assessment in Advanced Dementia (PAINAD) scale ✓
  3. The Wong-Baker FACES scale completed by the nurse's observation
  4. The COMFORT Behavioral Scale validated for mechanically ventilated children

Why: The source identifies PAINAD as a simple, valid, reliable instrument for assessing pain in noncommunicative patients with advanced dementia. A numeric scale requires verbal report, FACES requires the patient (not nurse) to choose a face, and the COMFORT scale is validated for mechanically ventilated children.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 11.3 Pain Assessment Methods

According to the source, orders for the use of seclusion or restraint:

  1. May be written as PRN when the patient has a history of agitation
  2. Can be issued as a standing order for all patients on a locked unit
  3. Can never be written as a standing order or PRN (as needed) ✓
  4. May be renewed indefinitely without a new physician evaluation

Why: The source states orders for seclusion or restraint can never be written as a standing order or PRN (as needed), and that after an order expires a practitioner must reassess the patient before a new order. PRN or standing orders and indefinite renewal are explicitly prohibited.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 5.7 Restraints

According to the source, menopause is defined as how many months of amenorrhea?

  1. 6 months of amenorrhea
  2. 12 months of amenorrhea ✓
  3. 3 months of amenorrhea
  4. 24 months of amenorrhea

Why: The source states menopause refers to 12 months of amenorrhea, typically occurring between ages 40 and 59, with the average age being 51 years old. Perimenopause ends when menses has ceased for 12 months.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 18.17 Perimenopause and Menopause

A nurse tells a patient, 'I will be back in an hour to check your pain,' and returns as promised. Which ethical principle does this demonstrate?

  1. Veracity
  2. Justice
  3. Beneficence
  4. Fidelity ✓

Why: The source defines fidelity as keeping promises, giving the exact example of telling a patient 'I will be back in an hour to check your pain' and then doing so.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Ethical Practice

According to the source describing the QSEN informatics competency, which of the following are examples of informatics technologies used by nurses?

  1. Acuity scales, ratio-based staffing, and mandatory overtime scheduling tools
  2. Electronic medical records, barcode medication devices, and smart IV pumps ✓
  3. Living wills, durable powers of attorney for health care, and legal guardianship
  4. Assault, battery, and false imprisonment, which are all categories of torts

Why: The source lists informatics technologies as electronic medical records (EMRs), bedside medication administration (barcode) devices, smart IV pumps, and medication distribution systems, and states nurses must maintain informatics competence.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Advocacy

According to the source, preeclampsia commonly presents at which point and is characterized by which findings?

  1. After 20 weeks, with new-onset hypertension and proteinuria or end-organ dysfunction ✓
  2. Before 12 weeks of gestation, presenting with low blood pressure and glucosuria
  3. Only during the first trimester, presenting with isolated proteinuria and no edema
  4. Only after delivery of the placenta, presenting with hypotension and bradycardia

Why: The source states preeclampsia is new onset of hypertension (>=140/90) and proteinuria, or hypertension plus significant end-organ dysfunction, in a previously normotensive patient, commonly presenting after 20 weeks of gestation or during the postpartum period.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.5 Hypertensive Disorders of Pregnancy

According to the source, constipation refers to difficult bowel movements or fewer than how many bowel movements in a week?

  1. Fewer than five bowel movements in a week
  2. Fewer than seven bowel movements in a week
  3. Fewer than two bowel movements in a week
  4. Fewer than three bowel movements in a week ✓

Why: The source defines constipation as difficult bowel movements or fewer than three bowel movements in the span of a week. The most common type in children is functional constipation.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 16.7 Constipation (Pediatric)

According to the source, infants born to mothers with diabetes tend to have which characteristics?

  1. Small for gestational age with high blood glucose after birth
  2. Large for gestational age and likely hypoglycemia soon after birth ✓
  3. Normal size with no risk of blood glucose changes
  4. Small for gestational age with polycythemia only

Why: The source states that infants of mothers with diabetes tend to be large for gestational age and are likely to have hypoglycemia soon after birth. High maternal blood sugar in early pregnancy can also cause congenital anomalies.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 19.2 High-Risk Pregnancy

According to the source, persistent depressive disorder (formerly dysthymia) requires depressive symptoms be present most of the day, more days than not, in adults for at least what duration?

  1. Two weeks
  2. Six months
  3. One month
  4. Two years ✓

Why: The source states that persistent depressive disorder is a chronic form of depression that is typically less severe than major depressive disorder but lasts longer; in adults symptoms must be present most of the day, more days than not, for at least two years.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 7.3 Types of Depression

A patient in Phase 3 of a crisis is yelling. Which nurse statement is an example of therapeutic limit-setting rather than a threat, according to the source?

  1. If you do not stop this behavior right now, I am going to call security immediately
  2. That type of disruptive behavior will absolutely not be tolerated on this unit at all
  3. Please sit down. I will have to call for assistance if you can't control your emotions ✓
  4. If you keep yelling at the staff like that, I will not be able to help you at all today

Why: The source contrasts limit-setting with threats. Limit-setting describes the desired behavior (for example, 'Please sit down. I will have to call for assistance if you can't control your emotions'), whereas making threats is nontherapeutic.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 3.5 Crisis and Crisis Intervention

The nurse teaches a class on the chain of infection. According to the source, which link is described as 'the vehicle by which the organism is transferred, such as physical contact, inhalation, or injection'?

  1. Portal of exit
  2. Reservoir
  3. Mode of transmission ✓
  4. Susceptible host

Why: The source defines the mode of transmission as the vehicle by which the organism is transferred, such as physical contact, inhalation, or injection. The portal of exit is how the organism leaves the reservoir, the reservoir is where it grows, and the susceptible host is the individual it invades.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 9.6 Preventing Infection

A nurse is preparing a patient for general anesthesia and reinforces the need to remain NPO. Why does general anesthesia require the patient to have an empty stomach?

  1. To lower the risk of hypothermia
  2. To speed up anesthetic metabolism
  3. To prevent malignant hyperthermia
  4. To reduce the risk of aspiration ✓

Why: The source states that general anesthesia requires an empty stomach to reduce the risk of aspiration, whereas local anesthesia can be administered regardless of the patient's eating status. Fasting status is a key characteristic affecting anesthesia selection.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.2 Basic Concepts Related to Surgery

According to the source, research suggests the LGBTQ population experiences health disparities linked to which of the following?

  1. Excess and readily available access to affirming health care
  2. A complete absence of any mental health needs in the population
  3. Societal stigma, discrimination, and denial of civil rights ✓
  4. Higher rates of stable employer-provided health insurance coverage

Why: The source states research suggests LGBTQ individuals experience health disparities linked to societal stigma, discrimination, and denial of their civil rights, with high rates of mental health disorders, substance misuse, suicide, and experiences of violence and victimization.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations

According to the source, maternal urinary output in the first 24 hours postpartum may be as much as what volume?

  1. 3,000 mL ✓
  2. 1,000 mL
  3. 2,000 mL
  4. 500 mL

Why: The source states maternal urinary output may be as much as 3,000 mL in the first 24 hours as extracellular fluid shifts back into the intravascular system. Patients are encouraged to void when they feel the urge to reduce urinary tract infection risk.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 11.2 Postpartum Physiological Adaptations

A nurse uses bar code medication scanning at the bedside. Which statement reflects the source's guidance on this technology?

  1. A scanning error is best dismissed quickly as a technology glitch
  2. Scanning removes the need to identify the patient before administration
  3. Bar code scanning is used in addition to performing the five rights ✓
  4. Bar code scanning replaces the need to perform the five rights

Why: The source states bar code scanning should be used in addition to performing the five rights of medication administration, not in place of it. Errors flagged during scanning should be investigated, not dismissed as glitches, because they may signal a genuine safety concern.

Source: Open RN Nursing Pharmacology 2e, 2.3 Legal Foundations and National Guidelines

Immediately after delivery, a newborn is breathing and crying with good tone, even though the amniotic fluid contained meconium. According to the source, what is the appropriate action?

  1. Perform routine deep suctioning of the airway before any contact
  2. Place the newborn skin-to-skin without routine suctioning ✓
  3. Immediately begin positive pressure ventilation
  4. Intubate to clear the meconium

Why: The source states newborns who are breathing and/or crying can be placed skin-to-skin with their parent and do not require routine tactile stimulation or suctioning, even if the amniotic fluid was notable for meconium, because suctioning can cause bradycardia.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.9 Neonatal Resuscitation

A nurse assesses the home of an older adult who prefers to live independently. According to the source, which modification promotes safety and reduces fall risk?

  1. Adding loose scatter rugs throughout the home for warmth
  2. Removing rugs and installing grab bars and good lighting ✓
  3. Keeping the home dimly lit to promote restful sleep
  4. Storing frequently used items on high shelves

Why: The source states home modifications to promote safety and independence may include grab bars, elevated toilet seats, good lighting, minimization of clutter, and removal of rugs throughout the home. Assessment of the home environment for safety and ease of mobility is an important aspect of home care nursing.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals 2e, 19.2 Older Adult Basic Concepts

Immediately after a patient's tonic-clonic seizure ends, which nursing action does the source identify to prevent aspiration?

  1. Place the patient flat in the supine position
  2. Keep the patient positioned on their side ✓
  3. Sit the patient fully upright and offer fluids
  4. Insert an oral airway and begin suctioning

Why: The source states that after a seizure, the nurse should keep the patient on their side to prevent aspiration and ensure the airway is open and patent. There is often a period of confusion after a tonic-clonic seizure, so a safe environment is maintained.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 9.7 Seizures and Epilepsy

A care plan states to ambulate the patient 100 feet three times daily. This morning the patient reports dizziness and blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. What is the nurse's best action?

  1. Withhold the planned ambulation, document the findings, and notify the provider of the change in condition ✓
  2. Ambulate the patient as planned because the intervention is documented in the care plan
  3. Delegate the ambulation to unlicensed personnel so it is still completed
  4. Increase the ambulation distance beyond the planned amount to help raise the patient's blood pressure

Why: The source uses this exact example: using critical thinking and clinical judgment, the nurse decides not to implement a planned intervention that is no longer safe. The decision and supporting assessment findings should be documented, communicated during handoff, and the provider notified of the change in condition.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 4.7 Implementation of Interventions

According to the source, hot flashes and night sweats during perimenopause and menopause are collectively known as which type of symptoms?

  1. Vulvovaginal symptoms
  2. Metabolic symptoms
  3. Musculoskeletal symptoms
  4. Vasomotor symptoms ✓

Why: The source states vasomotor symptoms, commonly known as hot flashes and night sweats, are common symptoms of perimenopause and menopause. These episodes involve sudden intense heat with skin flushing, perspiration, palpitations, and discomfort lasting several minutes.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 18.17 Perimenopause and Menopause

A patient taking lithium reports nausea, vomiting, thirst, and fine hand tremors. According to the source, these early signs of lithium toxicity are associated with which serum level range?

  1. Less than 1.5 mEq/L ✓
  2. 1.6-1.9 mEq/L
  3. Greater than 2.0 mEq/L
  4. Greater than 2.5 mEq/L

Why: The source lists early signs of lithium toxicity (less than 1.5 mEq/L) as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, thirst, polyuria, slurred speech, muscle weakness, or fine tremors. These should be promptly reported to the provider.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 6.4 Mood Stabilizer - Lithium

A nurse monitors a patient's chest tube drainage. According to the source, drainage averaging more than which amount for 4 hours should be reported because it may indicate vascular injury requiring surgical repair?

  1. More than 50 mL/hour
  2. More than 200 mL/hour ✓
  3. More than 100 mL/hour
  4. More than 500 mL/hour

Why: The source states the provider should be notified if drainage averages more than 200 mL/hour for 4 hours, as this may indicate a vascular injury that requires surgical repair. The other amounts are not the threshold stated.

Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 6.3 Nursing Responsibilities for Clients With Chest Tube Drainage Systems

Evidence supports bedside handoff reports. According to the source, what benefit do bedside handoff reports provide compared with other formats?

  1. They eliminate the need to protect patient confidentiality
  2. They remove the need for the oncoming nurse to assess the patient
  3. They increase patient safety and patient and nurse satisfaction ✓
  4. They allow the report to be delegated to assistive personnel

Why: The source states evidence strongly supports that bedside handoff reports increase patient safety, as well as patient and nurse satisfaction, by communicating current, accurate patient information in real time; patient privacy and confidentiality rules must still be kept in mind if others are present.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, Communicating With Health Care Team Members

Using a Doppler device, at what point in gestation does the source state fetal heart tones can first be heard?

  1. As early as 6 weeks' gestation
  2. As early as 8 weeks' gestation
  3. As early as 10 weeks' gestation ✓
  4. As early as 16 weeks' gestation

Why: The source states fetal heart tones can be heard by Doppler as early as ten weeks' gestation, which is a positive sign of pregnancy. The other options do not match the value given in the text.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.3 Diagnosing Pregnancy

According to the source, a normal heart's ejection fraction falls within which range?

  1. Between 25 and 40 percent
  2. Between 40 and 55 percent
  3. Between 70 and 85 percent
  4. Between 55 and 70 percent ✓

Why: The source states a normal ejection fraction is between 55 and 70 percent, and patients with left-sided heart failure have measurements less than 55 percent. The other ranges are not stated.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 5.8 Heart Failure

The source notes NG tube placement may be contraindicated in patients with suspected head trauma because of the risk of misplacement through which structure?

  1. The fractured cribriform plate ✓
  2. The lower esophageal sphincter
  3. The pyloric sphincter
  4. The upper esophageal sphincter

Why: The source states the cribriform plate is a very thin bone that, if fractured, could provide a direct portal into the brain; for this reason NG placement in patients with suspected head trauma may be contraindicated, risking intracranial placement.

Source: Open RN Nursing Advanced Skills, 5.2 Basic Concepts

A community health nurse is caring for rural residents. According to the source, which of the following is a rural risk factor for health disparities?

  1. An excess availability of specialist physicians in the local area
  2. Very high rates of employer-provided commercial health insurance
  3. Geographic isolation and limited access to health care specialists ✓
  4. An abundance of convenient public transportation options for all

Why: The source states rural risk factors for health disparities include geographic isolation, lower socioeconomic status, higher rates of health risk behaviors, limited access to health care specialists, and limited job opportunities, intensified by lower rates of insurance coverage.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations

According to the source, how many oxygen molecules can each hemoglobin protein carry, and what is the term when all sites are filled?

  1. Four oxygen molecules; referred to as saturated ✓
  2. Two oxygen molecules; called oxygenated
  3. Six oxygen molecules; referred to as perfused
  4. One oxygen molecule per hemoglobin protein; when it is filled the state is called simply bound

Why: The source states each hemoglobin protein is capable of carrying four oxygen molecules, and when all four sites contain an oxygen molecule it is referred to as 'saturated.' The majority of oxygen is transported through the body attached to hemoglobin within red blood cells.

Source: Open RN Nursing Fundamentals, 8.2 Oxygenation Basic Concepts

A newborn shows coughing, choking, and cyanosis during feeding. According to the source, these 'Three C's' are the most common signs of which condition?

  1. Omphalocele of the abdomen
  2. Gastroschisis
  3. Anencephaly
  4. Esophageal atresia ✓

Why: The source states the most common signs of esophageal atresia are the 'Three C's' during feeding: Coughing, Choking, and Cyanosis. It often occurs with a tracheoesophageal fistula.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 20.6 Congenital and Genetic Disorders

Malignant hyperthermia is described by the source as an inherited muscle disorder triggered by which category of agents?

  1. Local anesthetics such as lidocaine
  2. Intravenous opioid analgesics such as morphine
  3. Antiemetics such as ondansetron
  4. Inhaled anesthetic agents or succinylcholine ✓

Why: The source states malignant hyperthermia is triggered by certain drugs used for general anesthesia, specifically inhaled anesthetic agents or the muscle relaxant succinylcholine. It leads to increased calcium in muscle cells and heightened muscle metabolism.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Alterations, 2.2 Basic Concepts Related to Surgery

A competent patient refuses a recommended treatment after being fully informed. The nurse supports the patient's decision even though the nurse disagrees. Which ethical principle is the nurse upholding?

  1. Autonomy ✓
  2. Beneficence
  3. Nonmaleficence
  4. Justice

Why: The source defines autonomy as the individual's right to self-determination and decision-making based on their own values; it is the nurse's primary ethical obligation, and patients may refuse care. Nurses support informed choices with nonjudgmental unconditional positive regard even when they disagree.

Source: Open RN Nursing Management and Professional Concepts, Ethical Practice

The source states the uterine fundus can first be palpated at which gestational age?

  1. At 12 or more weeks of gestation ✓
  2. At 8 or more weeks of gestation
  3. At 10 or more weeks of gestation
  4. At 16 or more weeks of gestation

Why: The source states that if the patient is at 12 or more weeks of gestation, the fundus can be palpated. The earlier weeks do not match the value given in the text.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 9.8 First Trimester Prenatal Care

A correctional nurse is planning re-entry services. According to the source, releasees are nearly 13 times more likely to die in the two weeks following release, most commonly from which cause?

  1. Cardiac arrest
  2. Overdose ✓
  3. Infection
  4. Motor vehicle crash

Why: The source states that while mortality rates within prisons are comparable to the general population, releasees are nearly 13 times more likely to die in the two weeks following their release, and the most common cause of death is overdose.

Source: Open RN Nursing Mental Health and Community Concepts 2e, 17.2 Vulnerable Populations

According to Erikson's theory as described in the source, which psychosocial stage applies to the infant?

  1. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
  2. Initiative vs. guilt
  3. Trust vs. mistrust ✓
  4. Industry vs. inferiority

Why: The source states that according to Erikson's theory, infants are in the trust vs. mistrust stage; if basic needs are consistently met, they develop trust.

Source: Open RN Nursing Health Promotion, 13.3 Stages of Child Development